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CTFL_Syll_4.0 ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level (CTFL) v4.0 Questions and Answers

Questions 4

A requirement specifies that if the total amount of sales (TAS) made during the year by a corporate seller is 300000€ or more, the bonus that must be paid to the seller is 100% of a certain amount agreed upon at the beginning of the year. The software contains a fault as it implements this requirement with the decision "IF (TAS = 300000)" instead of "IF (TAS >= 300000)". The application of the 3-value boundary value analysis to this problem consists of the following three test cases (TAS is an integer variable):

TC1 = 299999 TC2=300000 TC3=300001

Which of the following statements is true?

Options:

A.

TC1 would highlight the fault

B.

TC2 would highlight the fault

C.

TC3 would highlight the fault

D.

None of the three test cases would highlight the fault

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Questions 5

An anti-intrusion system is battery powered and is activated by pressing the only available button. To deactivate the system, the operator must enter a PIN code. The system will stay in alert mode within a configurable timeout and an alarm bell will ring if the system is not deactivated before the timeout expires. The following state transition diagram describes the behavior of the system:

What is the minimum number of test cases needed to cover every unique sequence of exactly 4 states/3 transitions starting and ending in the “Inactive” state? (note that “Inactive” is not a final state in the diagram)

Options:

A.

1

B.

2

C.

3

D.

4

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Questions 6

The following 4 equivalence classes are given:

Which of the following alternatives includes correct test values for x. based on equivalence partitioning?

Options:

A.

-100; 100:1000; 1001

B.

-500; 0; 100; 1000

C.

-99; 99:101; 1001

D.

-1000; -100; 100; 1000

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Questions 7

Which of the following is a role that is usually responsible for documenting the findings (e.g., action items, decisions, recommendations) made by the review team as part of a typical formal review?

Options:

A.

Review leader

B.

Facilitator

C.

Recorder

D.

Moderator

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Questions 8

Which of the following statements about checklist-based testing is true?

Options:

A.

Checklist-based testing is a technique for managing the review meeting that can be applied in those reviews where the use of checklists is mandatory, as is often the case in formal reviews

B.

Checklist-based testing is a review technique that can be used in a formal review process where reviewers, during individual review, try to detect issues within the work product based on a checklist

C.

In checklist-based testing, using checklists at a high level of detail is more likely to produce test cases that are easier to reproduce than those using checklists at a low level of detail

D.

Checklists used in checklist-based testing should be reviewed periodically for updates as, over time, test cases designed using the same checklist may become less effective at finding defects

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Questions 9

Which of the following statements about the typical activities of a formal review process is true?

Options:

A.

Individual review is only mandatory when the size of the work product under review is too large to cover at the review meeting

B.

Various review techniques that may be applied by participants during individual review are described in the ISO/IEC/IEEE 29119-3 standard

C.

Choosing which standards to follow during the review process is usually made during review planning

D.

One of the main goals of the review meeting is to make sure that all participants are aware of their roles and responsibilities in the review process

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Questions 10

After being in operation for many years, a document management system must be decommissioned as it has reached its end of life. This system will not be replaced by any other new system. A legal obligation provides that all documents within the system must be kept for at least 20 years in a state archive.

Which of the following statements about maintenance testing for decommissioning of this system is true?

Options:

A.

No maintenance testing is required as this system will not be replaced

B.

Data migration testing is required as part of maintenance testing

C.

Confirmation testing is required as part of maintenance testing

D.

Regression testing is required as part of maintenance testing

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Questions 11

Exploratory testing is an experience-based test technique:

Options:

A.

Where a developer and a tester work together on the same workstation: while the developer actively writes code, the tester explores the code to find defects

B.

That can be organized into sessions guided by test charters outlining test objectives that will guide the testers' exploration

C.

Where a team of testers explores all possible test techniques in order to determine the most suitable combination of these techniques to apply for a test project

D.

That aims at finding defects by designing tests that exercise all possible combinations of input values and preconditions

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Questions 12

Which of the following statements about static testing and dynamic testing is true?

Options:

A.

Unlike dynamic testing, which can be also performed manually, static testing cannot be performed without specialized tools

B.

Static testing is usually much less cost-effective than dynamic testing

C.

Unlike dynamic testing, which focuses on detecting potential defects, static testing focuses on detecting failures which may be due to actual defects

D.

Both static testing and dynamic testing can be used to highlight issues associated with non-functional characteristics

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Questions 13

Which of the following types of bug are more likely to be found by static testing then by dynamic testing?

Options:

A.

A sub-system that does not perform the intended functionality

B.

Variables that were declared in the code without initialization

C.

Functions that take much longer time to complete than expected

D.

Crashes of the application

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Questions 14

The four test levels used in ISTQB syllabus are:

1. Component (unit) testing

2. Integration testing

3. System testing

4. Acceptance testing

An organization wants to do away with integration testing but otherwise follow V-model. Which of the following statements is correct?

Options:

A.

It is allowed as organizations can decide on men test levels to do depending on the context of the system under test

B.

It is allowed because integration testing is not an important test level arc! can be dispensed with.

C.

It is not allowed because integration testing is a very important test level and ignoring i: means definite poor product quality

D.

It is not allowed as organizations can't change the test levels as these are chosen on the basis of the SDLC (software development life cycle) model

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Questions 15

Which ONE of the following statements does NOT describe how testing contributes to higher quality?

Options:

A.

Properly designed tests that pass reduce the level of risk in a system.

B.

The testing of software demonstrates the absence of defects.

C.

Software testing identifies defects, which can be used to improve development activities.

D.

Performing a review of the requirement specifications before implementing the system can enhance quality.

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Questions 16

Which of the following is a test-first approach, where tests that express a shared understanding from stakeholders of how the application is expected to work, are first written in business-readable language (following the Given/When/Then format), and then made executable to drive development?

Options:

A.

Test-Driven Development (TDD)

B.

Acceptance Test-Driven Development (ATDD)

C.

Behavior-Driven Development (BDD)

D.

Domain-Driven Design (DDD)

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Questions 17

Which of the following is a typical potential risk of using test automation tools?

Options:

A.

Reduced feedback times regarding software quality compared to manual testing

B.

Reduced test execution times compared to manual testing

C.

Reduced repeatability and consistency of tests compared to manual testing

D.

Underestimation of effort required to maintain test scripts

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Questions 18

A requirement specifies that a certain identifier (ID) must be between 5 and 10 characters long, must contain only alphanumeric characters, and its first character must be a letter. As a tester, you want to apply one-dimensional equivalence partitioning to test this ID. This means that you have to apply equivalence partitioning individually: to the length of the ID, the type of characters contained within the ID, and the type of the first character of the ID.

What is the number of partitions to cover?

Options:

A.

7

B.

6

C.

5

D.

3

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Questions 19

In which of the following test documents would you expect to find test exit criteria described9

Options:

A.

Test design specification

B.

Project plan

C.

Requirements specification

D.

Test plan

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Questions 20

A new web app aims at offering a rich user experience. As a functional tester, you have run some functional tests to verify that, before releasing the app, such app works correctly on several mobile devices, all of which are listed as supported devices within the requirements specification. These tests were performed on stable and isolated test environments where you were the only user interacting with the application. All tests passed, but in some of those tests you observed the following issue: on some mobile devices only, the response time for two web pages containing images was extremely slow.

Based only on the given information, which of the following recommendation would you follow?

Options:

A.

You should open a defect report providing detailed information on which devices and by running which tests you observed the issue

B.

The issue is related to performance efficiency, not functionality. Thus, as a functional tester, you should not open any defect report as all the functional tests passed

C.

You should not open any defect report as the problem is most likely due to poor hardware equipment on the devices where you observed the issue

D.

You should not open any defect report and inform the test manager that the devices on which you observed the issue should no longer be supported so that they will be removed from the requirements specification

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Questions 21

What does the "absence-of-defects fallacy" refer to in software development?

Options:

A.

The belief that thoroughly testing all requirements guarantees system success.

B.

The need for constant system quality assurance and improvements.

C.

A misconception that software verification is unnecessary

D.

The idea that fixing defects is NOT important to meeting user needs.

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Questions 22

In branch testing, what is the significance of a conditional branch in a software program?

Options:

A.

It marks a point where the program’s execution will terminate bringing the program to a halt.

B.

It indicates a decision point where the program can follow different paths based on specific conditions.

C.

It represents a programming error and therefore a conditional branch should be avoided.

D.

It signifies a comment or documentation within the code and it doesn't indicate a defect.

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Questions 23

The following chart represents metrics related to testing of a project that was competed. Indicate what is represented by tie lines A, B and the axes X.Y

A)

B)

C)

D)

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

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Questions 24

A Test Manager conducts risk assessment for a project. One of the identified risks is: The sub-contractor may fail to meet his commitment". If this risk materializes. it will lead to delay in completion of testing required for the current cycle.

Which of the following sentences correctly describes the risk?

Options:

A.

It is a product risk since any risk associated with development timeline is a product risk.

B.

It is no longer a risk for the Test Manager since an independent party (the sub-contractor) is now managing it

C.

It is a object risk since successful completion of the object depends on successful and timely completion of the tests

D.

It is a product risk since default on part of the sub-contractor may lead to delay in release of the product

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Questions 25

Exploratory testing is an experience-based test technique:

Options:

A.

Where a developer and a tester work together on the same workstation: while the developer actively writes code, the tester explores the code to find defects

B.

That can be organized into sessions guided by test charters outlining test objectives that will guide the testers' exploration

C.

Where a team of testers explores all possible test techniques in order to determine the most suitable combination of these techniques to apply for a test project

D.

That aims at finding defects by designing tests that exercise all possible combinations of input values and preconditions

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Questions 26

Which of the following statements about the shift-left approach is true?

Options:

A.

Shift-left in testing can be implemented only in Agile/DevOps frameworks, as it relies completely on automated testing activities performed within a continuous integration process

B.

Performance testing performed during component testing, is a form of shift-left in testing that avoids planning and executing costly end-to-end testing at the system test level in a production-like environment

C.

Shift-left in testing can be implemented in several ways to find functional defects early in the lifecycle, but it cannot be relied upon to find defects associated with non-functional characteristics

D.

Continuous integration supports shift-left in testing as it can reduce the time between the introduction of a defect and its detection, thereby reducing the cost to fix it

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Questions 27

Which sequence of state transitions is INCORRECT in accordance with the following description?

To provide for disaster recovery a system (designated as A) has been provided with a backup system (designated as B). Only one of them can be active at a time. When A goes down, B becomes active. When A comes back up then B becomes inactive and A becomes active again. However, when A is down and B also goes down then a message is sent to the system administrator. After this once A comes back up, A becomes active or if B comes up then B becomes Active.

Options:

A.

A and B are both down then A and B both come back up at the same time. A should become the active system and B should be inactive

B.

A is active and B is inactive. A goes down. B becomes active then B goes down. A is made active

C.

A is active and B is inactive then A goes down, B becomes active.

D.

A comes up when B is active and A was down. Now A becomes active and B becomes inactive.

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Questions 28

Consider an estimation session where a six-member Agile team (Memb1, ... , Memb6) is performing a planning poker session to estimate a user story (in story points). Team

members are using a set of cards with the following values: 1, 2, 3, 5, 8, 13, 21. Below is the outcome produced by the first round of estimation for this session:

Which of the following answers best describes how the estimation session should proceed?

Options:

A.

The final estimate of the user story in story points is determined as the arithmetic mean of all the estimates made by the team members during this first round, without the need to perform further rounds of estimation

B.

The final estimation of the user story in story points is determined as the most frequent estimate value among those selected by the team members (in this case 3 story points chosen by Memb1, Memb2, Memb3, Memb5) during this first round, without the need to perform further rounds of estimation

C.

The final estimate of the user story in story points is determined as the arithmetic mean of the most optimistic estimate (chosen by Memb6) and the most pessimistic estimate (chosen by Memb4) during this first round, without the need to perform further rounds of estimation

D.

Memb4 and Memb6, which have produced the most pessimistic and the most optimistic estimates respectively, should explain the reasons of their choices to stimulate a discussion between all team members before to proceed to another round of estimation

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Questions 29

The tests at the bottom layer of the test pyramid:

Options:

A.

run faster than the tests at the top layer of the pyramid

B.

cover larger pieces of functionalities than the tests at the top layer of the pyramid

C.

are defined as 'Ul Tests' or 'End-To-End tests' in the different models of the pyramid

D.

are unscripted tests produced by experience-based test techniques

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Questions 30

Consider the following examples of risks identified in different software development projects:

[I]. The contrast color ratio for both normal text and large text of a website does not comply with the applicable accessibility guidelines, making it difficult for many users to read the content on the pages

[II]. A development vendor fails to deliver their software system on time, causing significant delays to system integration testing activities that have been planned as part of a development project for a system of systems

[III]. People in the test team do not have sufficient skills to automate tests at the test levels required by the test automation strategy which does not allow production of an effective regression test suite

[IV]. In a web application, data from untrusted sources is not subject to proper input validation, making the application vulnerable to several security attacks

Which of the following statements is true?

Options:

A.

[I] and [III] are product risks; [II] and [IV] are project risks

B.

[I] and [IV] are product risks. [II] and [III] are project risks

C.

[II], [III] and [IV] are product risks; [I] is a project risk

D.

[IV] is a product risk; [I]. [II] and [III] are project risks

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Questions 31

Which of the following statements about how different types of test tools support testers is true?

Options:

A.

The support offered by a test data preparation tool is often leveraged by testers to run automated regression test suites

B.

The support offered by a performance testing tool is often leveraged by testers to run load tests

C.

The support offered by a bug prediction tool is often used by testers to track the bugs they found

D.

The support offered by a continuous integration tool is often leveraged by testers to automatically generate test cases from a model

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Questions 32

Which of the following statements is CORRECT about White-box testing?

Options:

A.

White-box testing helps find defects because they can be used to measure statement coverage

B.

White-box testing helps find defects even when specifications are vague because it takes into account the code.

C.

White-box testing helps find defects because it provides for requirements based coverage

D.

White-box testing helps find defects because it focuses on defects rather than failures

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Questions 33

A test manager has started a cycle of testing for an e-commerce application. The reason for testing is the change in the protocol for connecting to the payment gateway because of new regulations. Which of the following correctly names this type of testing?

Options:

A.

Retirement testing

B.

System integration testing

C.

Beta testing

D.

Maintenance testing

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Questions 34

The whole-team approach:

Options:

A.

promotes the idea that all team members should have a thorough understanding of test techniques

B.

is a consensus-based approach that engages the whole team in estimating the user stories

C.

promotes the idea that all team members should be responsible for the quality of the product

D.

is mostly adopted in projects aimed at developing safety-critical systems, as it ensures the highest level of testing independence

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Questions 35

Which of the following statements about error guessing is true?

Options:

A.

Error guessing is a system that adopts artificial intelligence to predict whether software components are likely to contain defects or not

B.

Experienced testers, when applying error guessing, rely on the use of a high-level list of what needs to be tested as a guide to find defects

C.

Error guessing refers to the ability of a system or component to continue normal operation despite the presence of erroneous inputs

D.

Experienced testers, when applying error guessing technique, can anticipate where errors, defects and failures have occurred and target their tests at those issues

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Questions 36

Which of the following is a good testing practice which is applicable INDEPENDENT of the software development lifecycle followed?

Options:

A.

Not all development activities should have corresponding test activities

B.

Each test level should have an appropriate test objective

C.

Reviews should be done after the work products have been finalized

D.

Large amount of redundancy between test levels is good because it prevents bug leakage

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Questions 37

A new web app aims at offering a rich user experience. As a functional tester, you have run some functional tests to verify that, before releasing the app, such app works correctly on several mobile devices, all of which are listed as supported devices within the requirements specification. These tests were performed on stable and isolated test environments where you were the only user interacting with the application. All tests passed, but in some of those tests you observed the following issue: on some mobile devices only, the response time for two web pages containing images was extremely slow.

Based only on the given information, which of the following recommendation would you follow?

Options:

A.

You should open a defect report providing detailed information on which devices and by running which tests you observed the issue

B.

The issue is related to performance efficiency, not functionality. Thus, as a functional tester, you should not open any defect report as all the functional tests passed

C.

You should not open any defect report as the problem is most likely due to poor hardware equipment on the devices where you observed the issue

D.

You should not open any defect report and inform the test manager that the devices on which you observed the issue should no longer be supported so that they will be removed from the requirements specification

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Questions 38

A typical generic skill required for the role of tester is the ability to:

Options:

A.

take on the role of developer to meet challenging project deadlines

B.

assume leadership aimed at imposing decisions on the rest of the team

C.

use tools to make the execution of repetitive testing tasks more efficient

D.

determine the corrective actions to get a test project on track in case of deviations from the test plan

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Questions 39

In addition to thorough testing of the requirements specification, a development team aims to involve users as early as possible in the development process, using practices such as prototyping, to ensure that the software systems being developed will meet the users’ expectations. This approach is especially useful at mitigating the risks associated with one of the seven testing principles, which one?

Options:

A.

Tests wear out

B.

Absence-of-errors fallacy

C.

Working software over comprehensive documentation

D.

Defects cluster together

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Questions 40

Consider a review for a high-level architectural document written by a software architect. The architect does most of the review preparation work, including distributing the document to reviewers before the review meeting. However, reviewers are not required to analyze the document in advance, and during the review meeting the software architect explains the document step by step. The only goal of this review is to establish a common understanding of the software architecture that will be used in a software development project.

Which of the following review types does this review refer to?

Options:

A.

Inspection

B.

Audit

C.

Walkthrough

D.

Informal review

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Questions 41

Which of the following issues cannot be identified by static analysis tools?

Options:

A.

Very low MTBF (Mean Time Between failure)

B.

Potentially endless loops

C.

Referencing a variable with an undefined value

D.

Security vulnerabilities

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Questions 42

A calculator software is used to calculate the result for 5+6.

The user noticed that the result given is 6.

This is an example of;

Options:

A.

Mistake

B.

Fault

C.

Error

D.

Failure

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Questions 43

Given some statements about independence of testing

i.Independence is a replacement for familiarity with the code

ii.Independence helps remove the biases produced because of own work

iii.Similar kind of failures can be detected by anyone

iv.Assumptions by different people are different revealing weaknesses Which of the following CORRECTLY represents the benefits?

Options:

A.

ii and iv

B.

i and iv

C.

i and iii

D.

iii and iv

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Questions 44

A number of characteristics are given for impact of SDLC on the testing effort.

i.Finishing of requirements review leading to test analysis

ii.Both - static and dynamic testing performed at unit testing level

iii.Frequent regression testing may need to be performed

iv.Extensive product documentation

v.More use of exploratory testing

Which of the following statements is MOST correct?

Options:

A.

i, ii and iii are characteristics of sequential models; iv and v are characteristicsof iterativeandincrementalmodels

B.

i and iv are characteristics of sequential models;ii, iii and varecharacteristicsof iterativeandincrementalmodels

C.

ii and iv are characteristics of sequential models;i, iii and varecharacteristicsof iterativeandincrementalmodels

D.

iii and iv are characteristics of sequential modelsand i, ii and v are characteristics of iterative and incremental models

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Questions 45

Which ONE of the following is a characteristic of exploratory testing?

Options:

A.

Effectiveness depends on the individual testers' skills

B.

Usually conducted when there is sufficient time for testing

C.

Test cases are written once the specifications become available

D.

Testing without defined time-boxes

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Exam Code: CTFL_Syll_4.0
Exam Name: ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level (CTFL) v4.0
Last Update: Nov 24, 2024
Questions: 151
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