SY0-601 CompTIA Security+ Exam 2023 Questions and Answers

Impossible travel time is an anomaly detection that indicates a possible compromise of a user account. It occurs when the same user connects from two different countries and the time between those connections is shorter than the time it would take to travel from the first location to the second by conventional means. This suggests that a different user is using the same credentials or that a proxy or VPN is being used to mask the true location. The log activity shows that the user connected from two different IP addresses in different countries (US and Brazil) within a span of 37 minutes, which is impossible to achieve by normal travel. References: Detecting and Remediating Impossible Travel - Microsoft Community Hub; Anomaly detection policies - Microsoft Defender for Cloud Apps; Understanding Microsoft 365 Impossible Travel Rules | Blumira

This is the best course of action for the help desk technician because it can help prevent a potential social engineering attack. Social engineering is a technique that involves manipulating or deceiving people into revealing sensitive information or performing actions that compromise security. The caller may be impersonating a member of the organization’s cybersecurity incident response team to obtain the network’s internal firewall IP address, which could be used for further attacks. The help desk technician should not provide any information over the phone without verifying the caller’s identity and authorization. The help desk technician should also report the incident to the organization’s cybersecurity officer for investigation and response. References: https://www.comptia.org/blog/social-engineering-explained https://www.certblaster.com/wp-content/uploads/2020/11/CompTIA-Security-SY0-601-Exam-Objectives-1.0.pdf

An air gap is a security measure that physically isolates a section of the network from any other network or device that could compromise its security. An air gap prevents any unauthorized access, data leakage, or malware infection through network connections, such as Ethernet cables, wireless signals, or Bluetooth devices. An air gap can be used to protect sensitive or critical systems and data from external threats, such as hackers, spies, or cyberattacks.

 NDA stands for non-disclosure agreement, which is a legally binding contract that establishes a confidential relationship between two or more parties. An NDA can be used to prevent intellectual property theft by employees who leave the organization by prohibiting them from disclosing or using any sensitive information they may have obtained during their employment. An NDA can protect trade secrets, business plans, customer data, and other proprietary information from being leaked or exploited by competitors or other parties789 References: CompTIA Security+ SY0-601 Certification Study Guide, Chapter 10: Summarizing Risk Management Concepts, page 452; Non-Disclosure Agreement (NDA) Explained, With Pros and Cons - Investopedia; Free Non-Disclosure Agreement (NDA) Template | PDF & Word; Non-disclosure agreement - Wikipedia

WPA2 (Wi-Fi Protected Access 2) is a network security protocol that should be implemented to ensure the strongest encryption for a wireless network. WPA2 is an upgrade from the original WPA protocol, which was designed as a replacement for the older and less secure WEP protocol. WPA2 implements the mandatory elements of IEEE 802.11i standard, including CCMP, an AES-based encryption mode. WPA2 provides stronger security and data protection than WPS (Wi-Fi Protected Setup), WAP (Wireless Application Protocol), or HTTPS (Hypertext Transfer Protocol Secure)

Hacktivists are hackers who use their skills to promote a political or social cause, such as human rights, environmentalism, anti-censorship, etc. Hacktivists may target organizations or individuals who oppose their views or agendas, and launch cyberattacks such as defacement, denial-of-service, data theft, or sabotage. In this case, the security manager should consider hacktivists as a potential threat actor who may launch cyberattacks in response to the CEO’s controversial opinion article.

A file integrity monitor is a tool that checks the permissions, hashes, and other attributes of files to detect unauthorized changes. The error message indicates that the tool tried to access the /etc/shadow file, which contains the encrypted passwords of the users, but was denied due to insufficient permissions. This file is usually protected by the root user and the shadow group, and only tools with the suid bit set or running as root can access it12. A pass-the-hash monitor, a forensic analysis tool, and a password cracker would not generate this error message, as they have different purposes and methods. 

An employee receiving a gift card request in an email that has an executive’s name in the display field to the email describes a possible business email compromise attack. Business email compromise (BEC) is a type of phishing attack that targets employees who have access to financial or sensitive information, such as accounting, human resources, or executive staff. The attacker impersonates a trusted person, such as a manager, vendor, or client, and requests a fraudulent payment, wire transfer, gift card purchase, or personal information. The attacker may spoof the email address or display name, use a look-alike domain, or compromise a legitimate email account to make the request seem authentic.

The MITRE ATT&CK framework would best support the analyst’s review of the tactics, techniques, and procedures (TTPs) the threat actor was observed using in previous campaigns. The MITRE ATT&CK framework is a knowledge base that describes the common TTPs used by various threat actors across different stages of an attack lifecycle. The framework can help security analysts understand how adversaries operate, what tools they use, what vulnerabilities they exploit, what indicators they leave behind, etc. The framework can also help security analysts improve their detection and response capabilities by providing recommendations and best practices.

Residual risk is the risk that remains after applying risk mitigation measures, such as controls, policies, or procedures. It reflects the level of uncertainty and potential impact that cannot be completely eliminated by risk management efforts. Residual risk is calculated by subtracting the risk reduction from the inherent risk, or by multiplying the inherent risk by the risk control effectiveness. Residual risk should be compared to the acceptable level of risk to determine if further action is needed or if the risk can be accepted by the management. References: CompTIA Security+ SY0-601 Certification Study Guide, Chapter 10: Summarizing Risk Management Concepts, page 456; Residual risk - Wikipedia; Residual risk definition and why it’s important - Advisera

Dynamic resource allocation is a technique that allows cloud providers to adjust the amount and distribution of computing resources according to the changing demand and capacity of the cloud environment1. Dynamic resource allocation can improve the efficiency and utilization of available computing power, as well as reduce the cost and energy consumption of the cloud infrastructure1. Dynamic resource allocation can also enhance the system availability and reliability by avoiding potential denial-of-service situations caused by overloading or under-provisioning of resources1.

A program that allows individuals to security test the company’s internet-facing application and compensates researchers based on the vulnerabilities discovered is best described as a bug bounty program. A bug bounty program is an incentive-based program that rewards ethical hackers for finding and reporting security flaws in software or systems6.

Security awareness training is an administrative control that educates users on the best practices and policies for protecting the organization’s data and systems from various threats, such as malware, phishing, social engineering, etc. Security awareness training can reduce the occurrence of malware execution by increasing the users’ ability to recognize and avoid malicious links, attachments, downloads, or websites.

A cold aisle and a hot aisle are design strategies for data centers that aim to improve the cooling efficiency and reduce the energy consumption. They involve lining up server racks in alternating rows with cold air intakes facing one side (the cold aisle) and hot air exhausts facing the other side (the hot aisle). This prevents the mixing of hot and cold air and creates a more uniform temperature distribution. The cold aisles receive cold air from the cooling units, while the hot aisles return hot air to the cooling units. This improves the performance and reliability of the IT equipment and lowers the cooling costs. References: Hot and Cold-Aisle Containment - Advantages & Disadvantages - AKCP; Hot Aisle Containment vs. Cold Aisle Containment: Which is Better for the Data Center? - Upsite; Aisle Containment Systems FAQ for Hot & Cold Aisle Solutions - Cool Shield; Hot and Cold Aisle Containment Differences - AKCP Monitoring; What is Hot Aisle/Cold Aisle? - Definition from Techopedia

Implementing 802.1X would have best prevented this avenue of attack. 802.1X is a standard that provides port-based network access control (PNAC), which means that it authenticates devices before allowing them to access network resources through a physical or wireless port. 802.1X can prevent unauthorized devices from obtaining valid IP addresses or accessing sensitive data by requiring them to provide credentials, such as a username and password, a certificate, or a token. 802.1X can also dynamically assign VLANs or firewall rules based on the device identity or role.

A SCADA system is a control system architecture that allows high-level supervision of machines and processes, such as those in a water treatment plant. A surveillance system, a smart watch, and a Wi-Fi-enabled thermostat are not examples of SCADA systems, as they do not involve industrial control or data acquisition. 

Visitor logs are records of who enters and exits a facility, when, and for what purpose. They can help hold staff accountable while escorting unauthorized personnel by providing evidence of their identity, authorization, and activities. Visitor logs can also help with auditing, incident response, and compliance.

Cross-site scripting is a type of web application attack that involves injecting malicious code or scripts into a trusted website or application. The malicious code or script can execute in the browser of the victim who visits the website or application, and can perform actions such as stealing cookies, redirecting to malicious sites, displaying fake content, or compromising the system. References: https://www.comptia.org/blog/what-is-cross-site-scripting https://www.certblaster.com/wp-content/uploads/2020/11/CompTIA-Security-SY0-601-Exam-Objectives-1.0.pdf

SSO stands for Single Sign-On, which is a technology that allows users to log in to multiple websites using a single set of credentials, such as a username and password or a digital certificate. SSO eliminates the need for users to create and remember multiple accounts and passwords for different websites, and simplifies the authentication process. SSO also enhances security by reducing the risk of password reuse, phishing, and identity theft.

An internet company that has created a new collaboration application can implement SSO to allow users to log in to the application with the credentials of other popular websites, such as Google, Facebook, or Twitter. This way, users do not have to create a new account for the application, and can use their existing accounts from other websites that they trust and use frequently. This can increase the user base and the convenience of the application.

Some examples of SSO technologies are OpenID, OAuth, and SAML. These technologies provide different ways of establishing trust and exchanging information between the websites that act as identity providers (IDPs) and the websites that act as relying parties (RPs). The IDPs are the websites that authenticate the users and provide their credentials or attributes to the RPs. The RPs are the websites that accept the users’ credentials or attributes from the IDPs and grant them access to their services.

A next-generation firewall (NGFW) is a solution that can defend against malicious actors misusing protocols and being allowed through network defenses. A NGFW is a type of firewall that can perform deep packet inspection, application-level filtering, intrusion prevention, malware detection, and identity-based access control. A NGFW can also use threat intelligence and behavioral analysis to identify and block malicious traffic based on protocols, signatures, or anomalies. References: https://www.comptia.org/blog/what-is-a-next-generation-firewall https://www.certblaster.com/wp-content/uploads/2020/11/CompTIA-Security-SY0-601-Exam-Objectives-1.0.pdf

The web server logs are records of the requests and responses that occur between a web server and a web client, such as a browser. The web server logs can show where the malware originated by indicating the source IP address, the destination URL, the date and time, the HTTP status code, the user agent, etc., of each request and response. The web server logs can help the incident response team to trace back the malicious website that infected the host with malware.

A USB data blocker is a device that prevents data transfer between a USB device and a host computer, while still allowing charging. This can prevent data breaches caused by malicious USB chargers or devices that may attempt to access or infect the phone’s data.

Email is one of the most common and effective threat vectors used by malicious actors to impersonate a company and conduct phishing or spear phishing attacks. Phishing is a type of social engineering attack where an attacker sends fraudulent emails that appear to be from a legitimate source, such as a company, a bank, a government agency, etc., and tries to trick the recipients into clicking on malicious links, opening malicious attachments, or providing sensitive information. Email can appear to be more legitimate than other threat vectors because it can use spoofed sender addresses, logos, signatures, or domain names that resemble the real ones.

A cloud access security broker (CASB) is a solution that sits between the users and the cloud service providers and enforces the organization’s security policies for cloud app access and usage. A CASB can help the company prevent unauthorized access to personal SaaS applications and mitigate cloud security risks

CVSS, or Common Vulnerability Scoring System, is a standard method for assessing the severity of software vulnerabilities based on various metrics and factors. CVE, or Common Vulnerabilities and Exposures, is a list of publicly disclosed vulnerabilities, but does not provide a severity score. OSINT, or Open Source Intelligence, is the collection and analysis of publicly available information, which may or may not be relevant to a specific vulnerability. SOAR, or Security Orchestration, Automation and Response, is a set of tools and processes that automate and streamline security operations and incident response.

chmod is a Linux command that can be used to change or modify the permissions of files and directories. The /etc/shadow file is a system file that stores the encrypted passwords of user accounts in Linux. The /etc/shadow file should have restricted permissions to prevent unauthorized access or modification of the passwords. The recommended permissions for the /etc/shadow file are read/write for root user only (600). If the systems administrator observes that the /etc/shadow file has permissions beyond the baseline recommendation, they can use the chmod command to resolve this issue by setting the appropriate permissions for the file. For example, chmod 600 /etc/shadow would set the permissions of the /etc/shadow file to read/write for root user only. 181920 References: CompTIA Security+ SY0-601 Certification Study Guide, Chapter 9: Implementing Identity and Access Management Controls, page 404; chmod - Wikipedia; Linux /etc/shadow file - nixCraft; How to Change File Permissions in Linux - Linuxize

ARP poisoning is a technique by which an attacker sends spoofed ARP messages to alter routing on a local area network. It can be used to intercept, modify, or stop data frames, or launch other attacks3 In this scenario, the attacker likely used ARP poisoning to associate their MAC address with the IP address of the time-keeping website, causing the kiosks to send a copy of all the submitted credentials to the attacker’s machine. This explains why only the credentials of the employees who clocked in and out while inside the building were stolen, and why the compromise was not detected by the DNS servers or the website itself4

Utilizing split tunneling so only traffic for corporate resources is encrypted would best maintain high-quality videoconferencing while minimizing latency when connected to the VPN. Split tunneling is a technique that allows a VPN user to access both the public internet and the private network simultaneously, without routing all traffic through the VPN. This can improve the performance and quality of videoconferencing applications that rely on low latency and high bandwidth, as well as reduce the load on the VPN server.

A smart card is a physical device that contains an embedded integrated circuit chip that can store and process data. A smart card can be used as a second authentication factor, in addition to a password, to verify the identity of a user who wants to log in to company-owned devices. A smart card requires a smart card reader to access the data on the chip, which adds an extra layer of security. A smart card meets the requirements of the company because it does not involve a smartphone or any other device that is not allowed at the desks

Masking is the process of replacing sensitive data with random characters in the same format, without a way to retrieve the original data. This is different from tokenization, which uses a token server to store the relationship between the original and token values. Obfuscation is a broader term that includes masking, but also other methods such as encryption or hashing. Hashing is a one-way function that converts data into a fixed-length output that cannot be reversed. 

Scanning is the activity of checking for vulnerabilities across the network, systems, or applications. It can be done manually or automatically using tools such as vulnerability scanners, port scanners, or network mappers. Scanning can help identify and remediate potential security issues before they are exploited.

Benchmarks are predefined sets of configuration standards or best practices for securing information systems and networks. Benchmarks can be used to assess system configurations against the minimum security baseline required by local guidelines or industry regulations. Benchmarks can also provide guidance on how to remediate any deviations or vulnerabilities found during the assessment123 References: CompTIA Security+ SY0-601 Certification Study Guide, Chapter 10: Summarizing Risk Management Concepts, page 454; What is a Security Benchmark? - Definition from Techopedia; Security Baselines and Benchmarks - SANS Institute; Security Configuration Benchmarks - CIS

A secure configuration guide is a document that provides an overview of the security features and best practices for a specific product, system, or application. A secure configuration guide helps to reduce unnecessary cyber vulnerabilities and enhance overall security by applying consistent and standardized settings and policies. A security analyst can create baselines for the server team to follow when hardening new devices for deployment based on a secure configuration guide.

A. Change management procedure. This is not the correct answer, because a change management procedure is a document that describes the steps and processes for implementing, reviewing, and approving changes to an IT system or environment. A change management procedure helps to minimize the risks and impacts of changes on the system performance, availability, and security.

B. Information security policy. This is not the correct answer, because an information security policy is a document that defines the rules and principles for protecting the confidentiality, integrity, and availability of information assets within an organization. An information security policy helps to establish the roles and responsibilities of employees, managers, and stakeholders regarding information security.

C. Cybersecurity framework. This is not the correct answer, because a cybersecurity framework is a document that provides a set of standards, guidelines, and best practices for managing cybersecurity risks and improving resilience. A cybersecurity framework helps to align the business objectives and priorities with the security requirements and capabilities.

D. Secure configuration guide. This is the correct answer, because a secure configuration guide is a document that provides an overview of the security features and best practices for a specific product, system, or application. A secure configuration guide helps to reduce unnecessary cyber vulnerabilities and enhance overall security by applying consistent and standardized settings and policies.

Segmentation is a security technique that divides a network into smaller subnetworks or segments based on criteria such as function, role, location, etc. Segmentation can help mitigate the risk of unauthorized access or data leakage by isolating different segments from each other and applying different security policies and controls to each segment. Segmentation can help the security manager to implement a mitigation while maintaining alerting capabilities by separating the smart generator from the internal file server and allowing only necessary communication between them.

nmap is a network scanning tool that can perform various tasks such as port scanning, service detection, version detection, OS detection, vulnerability scanning, etc… nmap comptia.org -p 80 -sv is a command that scans port 80 (the default port for HTTP) on comptia.org domain name and tries to identify the service name and version running on that port. This can help identify potential vulnerabilities in the web server software by comparing the version with known exploits or patches.

A CASB (Cloud Access Security Broker) and encryption are two solutions that can address the CSO’s concerns about cloud-based services security. A CASB is a software tool or service that acts as an intermediary between users and cloud service providers, enforcing security policies and providing visibility and control over cloud activities. A CASB can help detect and prevent advanced threats and malware by applying data loss prevention, threat protection, anomaly detection, and encryption capabilities to cloud data and traffic456 Encryption is a process of transforming data into an unreadable format using a secret key or algorithm, making it inaccessible to unauthorized parties. Encryption can help protect cloud data from breaches by ensuring that only authorized users with the correct key can decrypt and access the data. Encryption can be applied to data at rest (stored in the cloud) or data in transit (moving between the cloud and users)789 References: CompTIA Security+ SY0-601 Certification Study Guide, Chapter 8: Implementing Secure Protocols, page 360; What is a Cloud Access Security Broker (CASB)? | McAfee; Cloud Access Security Brokers (CASBs) - Gartner IT Glossary; What is Cloud Access Security Broker (CASB)? - Definition from WhatIs.com; What is Encryption? | Malwarebytes; Encryption - Wikipedia; What is Encryption? How Does Encryption Work? | Kaspersky

GDPR stands for General Data Protection Regulation, which is a legal framework that sets guidelines for the collection and processing of personal information of individuals within the European Union (EU). GDPR also applies to organizations outside the EU that offer goods or services to, or monitor the behavior of, EU data subjects. GDPR aims to protect the privacy and rights of EU citizens and residents regarding their personal data. GDPR defines personal data as any information relating to an identified or identifiable natural person, such as name, identification number, location data, online identifiers, or any factors specific to the physical, physiological, genetic, mental, economic, cultural, or social identity of that person. A company that is auditing the manner in which its European customers’ personal information is handled should consult GDPR to ensure compliance with its rules and obligations. References:

• https://www.gdpreu.org/the-regulation/key-concepts/personal-data/
• https://ico.org.uk/for-organisations-2/guide-to-data-protection/guide-to-the-general-data-protection-regulation-gdpr/key-definitions/what-is-personal-data/

Site-to-site VPN is a type of VPN solution that connects two or more networks or sites across the public internet in a secure and encrypted way. Site-to-site VPN can be implemented using VPN appliances, such as firewalls or routers, that can establish and maintain the VPN tunnel between the sites. Site-to-site VPN can support multiple users or devices that need to access resources on the other site without requiring individual VPN clients or software. Site-to-site VPN is the best solution to support the new remote office, as it can provide secure and seamless connectivity between the office network and the main network of the organization. Verified References:

• Virtual Private Networks – SY0-601 CompTIA Security+ : 3.3 https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/virtual-private-networks-sy0-601-comptia-security-3-3/ (See Site-to-Site VPN)
• VPN Technologies – CompTIA Security+ SY0-501 – 3.2 https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-501/vpn-technologies/ (See Site-to-Site VPN)
• Security+ (Plus) Certification | CompTIA IT Certifications https://www.comptia.org/certifications/security (See Domain 3: Architecture and Design, Objective 3.3: Given a scenario, implement secure network architecture concepts.)

Establishing persistence for future use is the next step that a network penetration tester should do after gaining access to a target machine. Persistence means creating a backdoor or a covert channel that allows the penetration tester to maintain access to the target machine even if the initial exploit is patched or the connection is lost. Persistence can be achieved by installing malware, creating hidden user accounts, modifying registry keys, or setting up remote access tools. Establishing persistence can help the penetration tester to perform further reconnaissance, move laterally to other machines, or exfiltrate data from the target network.

Data owner is the role that is responsible for defining the protection type and classification type for a given set of files. Data owner is a person in the organization who is accountable for a certain set of data and determines how it should be protected and classified. General counsel is the role that provides legal advice and guidance to the organization. Risk manager is the role that identifies, analyzes, and mitigates risks to the organization. Chief Information Officer is the role that oversees the information technology strategy and operations of the organization

https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/data-roles-and-responsibilities/

PowerShell is a scripting language and command-line shell that can be used to automate tasks and manage systems. PowerShell can also be used by malware to execute malicious commands and evade detection. The code snippet in the question is a PowerShell command that creates a new partition on disk 2, formats it with NTFS file system, and assigns it a drive letter C. This could be part of an attack that wipes out the original data on the disk or creates a hidden partition for storing malware or stolen data. References:

• https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/scripting-and-automation/
• https://learn.microsoft.com/en-us/powershell/module/storage/new-partition?view=windowsserver2022-ps

SED stands for Self-Encrypting Drive, which is a type of hard drive that automatically encrypts and decrypts data using a built-in hardware encryption engine1. SEDs do not require any additional software or configuration, and they do not affect the performance or usability of the laptop2. SEDs also have a feature called Instant Secure Erase, which allows the user to quickly and securely wipe the data on the drive by deleting the encryption key1.

MDM stands for Mobile Device Management, which is a software solution that can manage and secure smartphones, laptops, tablets and other mobile devices across heterogeneous platforms. MDM can enforce security features such as encryption, password policies, remote wipe, device tracking, app control and more. MDM can also monitor and update the devices remotely and provide reports and alerts on their status. MDM is the most effective solution to implement security features across heterogeneous platforms, as it can provide centralized and consistent management of various types of devices. Verified References:

• Security+ (Plus) Certification | CompTIA IT Certifications https://www.comptia.org/certifications/security (See Domain 3: Architecture and Design, Objective 3.4: Given a scenario, implement secure systems design.)
• CompTIA Security+ 601 - Infosec https://www.infosecinstitute.com/wp-content/uploads/2021/03/CompTIA-Security-eBook.pdf (See Security+: 5 in-demand cybersecurity skills, Implementation)
• Certification Security+ | CompTIA https://www.comptia.org/landing/securityplus/index.html (See Exam Objectives)

Wireless jamming is a way for an attacker to disrupt a wireless network and create a denial of ser-vice situation by decreasing the signal-to-noise ratio at the receiving device. The attacker would need to be relatively close to the wireless network to overwhelm the good signal. The other options are not likely to cause a wireless network outage for users near the parking lot.

A zero-day vulnerability is a security flaw that is unknown to the vendor and the public, and therefore has no patch or fix available. A zero-day attack is an exploit that takes advantage of a zero-day vulnerability before the vendor or the security community becomes aware of it. A zero-day attack can cause serious damage to a system or network, as there is no defense against it until a patch is released. References:

• https://resources.infosecinstitute.com/certification/security-domain-1-threats-attacks-and-vulnerabilities/
• https://www.linkedin.com/learning/comptia-security-plus-sy0-601-cert-prep-1-threats-attacks-and-vulnerabilities/zero-days-and-the-advanced-persistent-threat
• https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-501/zero-day-attacks-4/

PCI DSS (Payment Card Industry Data Security Standard) is a set of security standards and requirements for organizations that store, process, or transmit payment card data. It aims to protect cardholder data and prevent fraud and data breaches. GDPR (General Data Protection Regulation) is a regulation that governs the collection, processing, and transfer of personal data of individuals in the European Union. It aims to protect the privacy and rights of data subjects and impose obligations and penalties on data controllers and processors. These are the frameworks that the security officer should map the existing controls to, as they are relevant for a credit card transaction company that has a new office in Europe

Federation is an access management concept that allows users to authenticate once and access multiple applications or services that trust the same identity provider. Open authentication is a standard protocol that enables federation by allowing users to use their existing credentials from one service to access another service. The company is most likely using federation and open authentication to safeguard intranet accounts and grant access to multiple sites based on a user’s intranet account. For example, the company could use an identity provider such as Azure AD or Keycloak to manage the user identities and credentials for the intranet account, and then use open authentication to allow the users to access other company-owned websites without having to log in again. References:

• https://www.keycloak.org/
• https://learn.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/active-directory/hybrid/connect/whatis-fed

DLP stands for Data Loss Prevention, which is a technology that can monitor, detect and prevent the unauthorized transmission of sensitive data, such as PII (Personally Identifiable Information). DLP can be implemented on endpoints, networks, servers or cloud services to protect data in motion, in use or at rest. DLP can also block or alert on data transfers that violate predefined policies or rules. DLP is the best tool to assist with detecting an employee who has accidentally emailed a file containing a customer’s PII, as it can scan the email content and attachments for any data that matches the criteria of PII and prevent the email from being sent or notify the administrator of the incident. Verified References:

• Data Loss Prevention Guide to Blocking Leaks - CompTIA https://www.comptia.org/content/guides/data-loss-prevention-a-step-by-step-guide-to-blocking-leaks
• Data Loss Prevention – SY0-601 CompTIA Security+ : 2.1 https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/data-loss-prevention-4/
• Data Loss Prevention – CompTIA Security+ SY0-501 – 2.1 https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-501/data-loss-prevention-3/

S/MIME stands for Secure/Multipurpose Internet Mail Extensions, which is a standard for encrypting and digitally signing email messages. S/MIME can provide confidentiality, integrity, authentication and non-repudiation for email communications. S/MIME can encrypt the emails at rest, which means that the email contents are protected even if they are stored on the mail servers or the user inboxes. S/MIME can prevent email contents from being released should another breach occur, as the attacker would not be able to decrypt or read the encrypted emails without the proper keys or certificates. Verified References:

• Cryptography Concepts – SY0-601 CompTIA Security+ : 2.8 https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/cryptography-concepts-2/ (See S/MIME)
• Mail Encryption - CompTIA Security+ All-in-One Exam Guide (Exam SY0-301) https://www.oreilly.com/library/view/comptia-security-all-in-one/9780071771474/sec5_chap14.html (See S/MIME)
• Symmetric and Asymmetric Encryption – CompTIA Security+ SY0-501 – 6.1 https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-501/symmetric-and-asymmetric-encryption/ (See S/MIME)

CMS (Cloud Management System) is a software or platform that allows an organization to manage and monitor multiple cloud services and resources from a single interface or console. It can optimize the incident response time by providing a centralized view and control of the cloud infrastructure and applications, and enabling faster detection, analysis, and remediation of security incidents across different cloud environments. 

Mobile device management (MDM) is a solution that allows an organization to manage, monitor, and secure mobile devices that are used by employees for work purposes. It can protect company information on user devices by enforcing policies and controls such as encryption, password, remote wipe, etc., and detecting and preventing unauthorized access or data leakage.

Based on the logs, it seems that the host that originated the infection is 192.168.10.22. This host has a suspicious process named svchost.exe running on port 443, which is unusual for a Windows service. It also has a large number of outbound connections to different IP addresses on port 443, indicating that it is part of a botnet.

The firewall log shows that this host has been communicating with 10.10.9.18, which is another infected host on the engineering network. This host also has a suspicious process named svchost.exe running on port 443, and a large number of outbound connections to different IP addresses on port 443.

The other hosts on the R&D network (192.168.10.37 and 192.168.10.41) are clean, as they do not have any suspicious processes or connections.

Port 53 is the default port for DNS traffic. If the firewall is blocking port 53, then users will not be able to resolve domain names and will receive errors stating that the website could not be located.

The other options would not correct the issue. Setting an explicit deny to all traffic using port 80 instead of 443 would block all HTTP traffic, not just web traffic. Moving the implicit deny from the bottom of the rule set to the top would make the deny rule more restrictive, which would not solve the issue. Configuring the first line in the rule set to allow all traffic would allow all traffic, including malicious traffic, which is not a good security practice.

Therefore, the best way to correct the issue is to ensure that port 53 has been explicitly allowed in the rule set.

Here are some additional information about DNS traffic:

• DNS traffic is used to resolve domain names to IP addresses.
• DNS traffic is typically unencrypted, which makes it vulnerable to eavesdropping.
• There are a number of ways to secure DNS traffic, such as using DNS over HTTPS (DoH) or DNS over TLS (DoT).

CVSS (Common Vulnerability Scoring System) is a framework and a metric that provides a standardized and consistent way of assessing and communicating the severity levels of vulnerabilities. It assigns a numerical score and a vector string to each vulnerability based on various factors, such as exploitability, impact, scope, etc. It can help communicate to the leadership team the severity levels of the organization’s vulnerabilities by providing a quantitative and qualitative measure of the risks and the potential impacts. 

Security information and event management (SIEM) is a solution that collects, analyzes, and correlates logs and events from various sources such as firewalls, servers, applications, etc., within an organization’s network. It can centralize logs to create a baseline and have visibility on security events by providing a unified dashboard and reporting system for log management and security monitoring.

iptables is a command-line tool that allows an administrator to configure firewall rules for a Linux system. The -F option flushes or deletes all the existing rules in the selected chain or in all chains if none is given. It can be used to remove the rules that caused the network to be unresponsive and restore the default firewall behavior. 

Isolating the infected attachment is the best course of action for the analyst to take to prevent further spread of the worm. A worm is a type of malware that can self-replicate and infect other devices without human interaction. By isolating the infected attachment, the analyst can prevent the worm from spreading to other devices or networks via email, file-sharing, or other means. Isolating the infected attachment can also help the analyst to analyze the worm and determine its source, behavior, and impact. References:

• https://www.security.org/antivirus/computer-worm/
• https://sec.cloudapps.cisco.com/security/center/resources/worm_mitigation_whitepaper.html

A digital certificate is an electronic document that contains the public key and identity information of an entity, such as a person, organization, website, etc. It is issued and signed by a trusted authority called a certificate authority (CA). It can provide non-repudiation by proving the identity and authenticity of the sender and verifying the integrity of the message or data.

A false positive is a type of alert that indicates a security incident when there is none. It can be caused by misconfigured or overly sensitive security tools or systems that generate false or irrelevant alerts. In this case, the alert from the company’s SIEM that Mimikatz attempted to run on the remote systems was a false positive because it was triggered by a legitimate vulnerability scanning tool that uses Mimikatz as part of its functionality.

Tor (The Onion Router) is a network and a software that enables anonymous communication over the internet. It routes the traffic through multiple relays and encrypts it at each layer, making it difficult to trace or monitor. It can access the dark web, which is a part of the internet that is hidden from conventional search engines and requires special software or configurations to access

Using a SHA-2 signature of a drive image is a way to supply non-repudiation during a forensics investigation, as it can verify the integrity and authenticity of the data captured in the image. SHA-2 is a family of secure hash algorithms that can produce a unique and fixed-length digest of any input data. By hashing the drive image and comparing the signature with the original hash, the investigator can prove that the image has not been altered or tampered with since the time of acquisition. This can also help to identify the source of the data and prevent any denial from the suspect. References:

• https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/managing-evidence/
• https://www.skillsoft.com/course/comptia-security-incident-response-digital-forensics-supporting-investigations-f889a108-9721-4e2c-8e9e-b49b01295e48

A pass-the-hash attack is a type of replay attack that captures and uses the hash of a password. The attacker then attempts to log on as the user with the stolen hash. This type of attack is possible be-cause some authentication protocols send hashes over the network instead of plain text passwords. The packet capture shows that the attacker used NTLM authentication, which is vulnerable to pass-the-hash attacks

Jamming is a type of denial-of-service attack that involves interfering with or blocking the wireless signal using a device that emits radio waves at the same frequency as the wireless network. It can cause the wireless network to be down and users to be unable to connect to it, especially if they are working in a building near the parking lot where someone could easily place a jamming device.

Corrective controls are security measures that are implemented after an incident to repair the damage and restore normal operations. They can include actions such as patching systems, restoring backups, removing malware, etc. An organization that is repairing damage after an incident is implementing corrective controls. 

This command creates an inbound access list that denies any IP traffic from the source IP address of 10.1.4.9/32 to any destination IP address (0.0.0.0/0). It blocks the originating source of malicious traffic from accessing the organization’s network. 

Containment is an incident response strategy that aims to isolate and prevent the spread of an attack or compromise within a network or system. It can resolve the issue of unauthorized software detected on a small number of machines in a lab as quickly as possible while causing minimal disruption to the researchers by stopping the software from communicating with external sources using HTTPS and SMS and preventing it from infecting additional machines outside of the lab

Honey pots are decoy systems or resources that are designed to attract and deceive threat actors and to learn more about their motives, techniques, etc. They can be deployed alongside production systems to create an illusion of a vulnerable target and divert attacks away from the real systems. They can also collect valuable information and evidence about the attackers and their activities for further analysis or prosecution. 

Containment is the next step according to the incident response process after identifying affected devices that are running a malicious application with a unique hash. Containment involves isolating the compromised devices or systems from the rest of the network to prevent the spread of the attack and limit its impact. Containment can be done by disconnecting the devices from the network, blocking network traffic to or from them, or applying firewall rules or access control lists. Containment is a critical step in incident response because it helps to preserve evidence for further analysis and remediation, and reduces the risk of data loss or exfiltration

https://www.fortinet.com/resources/cyberglossary/incident-response

https://www.ibm.com/topics/incident-response

WAF stands for Web Application Firewall, which is a type of firewall that can monitor, filter and block web traffic to and from web applications. WAF can protect web applications from common attacks such as cross-site scripting (XSS), SQL injection, directory traversal, buffer overflow and more. WAF can also enforce security policies and rules that can prevent parameter manipulation or tampering by an unknown third party. WAF is the best solution to help protect against the attack on the web API, as it can inspect the HTTP requests and responses and block any malicious or anomalous activity. Verified References:

• Other Application Attacks – SY0-601 CompTIA Security+ : 1.3 https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/other-application-attacks/ (See Web Application Firewall)
• CompTIA Security+ SY0-601 Exam Cram https://www.oreilly.com/library/view/comptia-security-sy0-601/9780136798767/ch03.xhtml (See Web Application Firewall)
• Security+ domain #1: Attacks, threats, and vulnerabilities [updated 2021] https://resources.infosecinstitute.com/certification/security-domain-1-threats-attacks-and-vulnerabilities/ (See Web application firewall)

A compensating control is a type of security control that is implemented in lieu of a recommended security measure that is deemed too difficult or impractical to implement at the present time. A compensating control must provide equivalent or comparable protection for the system or network and meet the intent and rigor of the original security requirement. An example of a compensating control is using a host-based firewall on a legacy Linux system to allow connections from only specific internal IP addresses, as it can provide a similar level of defense as a network firewall that may not be compatible with the system. References:

• https://www.techtarget.com/whatis/definition/compensating-control
• https://reciprocity.com/resources/whats-the-difference-between-compensating-controls-and-mitigating-controls/

Mimikatz is a tool that can extract plaintext credentials from memory on Windows systems. A malicious flash drive can bypass the GPO blocking the flash drives by using techniques such as autorun.inf or HID spoofing to execute Mimikatz on the target system without user interaction or consent. This can cause AV alerts indicating Mimikatz attempted to run on the remote systems and also reduce the storage capacity of the flash drives to only 512KB by creating hidden partitions or files on them. 

A legal hold is a process that requires an organization to preserve electronically stored information and paper documents that are relevant to a pending or anticipated litigation or investigation. It suspends the normal retention and destruction policies and procedures for such information and documents until the legal hold is lifted or released. 

Testing the policy in a non-production environment before enabling the policy in the production network would prevent the issue of making several company servers unreachable. A non-production environment is a replica of the production network that is used for testing, development, or training purposes. By testing the policy in a non-production environment, the technician can verify the functionality and impact of the policy without affecting the real network or users. This can help to identify and resolve any errors or conflicts before applying the policy to the production network. Testing the policy in a non-production environment can also help to ensure compliance with security standards and best practices.

VDI and thin clients are the best solution to deploy to conference rooms for displaying sensitive data on large screens. VDI stands for virtual desktop infrastructure, which is a technology that hosts the desktop operating systems and applications on a central server or cloud and allows users to access them remotely. Thin clients are devices that have minimal hardware and software components and rely on a network connection to the VDI system. By using VDI and thin clients, the security architect can ensure that the sensitive data is not stored in the conference rooms, but rather in a secure data center or cloud. The thin clients can also be easily managed and updated centrally, reducing the maintenance costs and risks. References:

• https://www.acecloudhosting.com/blog/what-is-vdi-thin-client/
• https://www.parallels.com/blogs/ras/vdi-thin-client/

A corrective control is a type of security control that is designed to mitigate the damage caused by a security incident or to restore the normal operations after an incident. A corrective control can include actions such as restoring from backups, applying patches, isolating infected systems, or implementing new policies and procedures. A corrective control is different from a preventive control, which aims to stop an incident from happening, or a detective control, which aims to identify and record an incident. References:

• https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/security-controls-3/
• https://www.oreilly.com/library/view/comptia-security-all-in-one/9781260464016/ch31.xhtml
• https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-501/security-controls-2/

Disabling access is an automation use case that can enhance the security posture of an organization by rapidly updating permissions when employees leave a company or change job roles internally. It can prevent unauthorized access and data leakage by revoking or modifying the access rights of employees based on their current status and role.

 Integrity is a security concept that ensures that data is accurate, complete and consistent, and that it has not been tampered with or modified in an unauthorized or unintended way. Integrity is important for e-commerce organizations to protect against erroneous purchases, as it can prevent data corruption, duplication, loss or manipulation that could affect the transactions or the records of the customers. Integrity can be achieved by using methods such as hashing, digital signatures, checksums, encryption and access control. Verified References:

• Security+ (Plus) Certification | CompTIA IT Certifications https://www.comptia.org/certifications/security (See What Skills Will You Learn?)
• CompTIA Security+ 601 - Infosec https://www.infosecinstitute.com/wp-content/uploads/2021/03/CompTIA-Security-eBook.pdf (See Security+: 5 in-demand cybersecurity skills)
• CompTIA Security+ SY0-601 Certification Study Guide https://www.comptia.org/training/books/security-sy0-601-study-guide (See Chapter 1: Threats, Attacks and Vulnerabilities, Section 1.4: Cryptography and PKI)

SSH stands for Secure Shell, which is a protocol that can be used to securely transfer files over the internet. SSH uses encryption and authentication to protect the data in transit and ensure the identity of the sender and receiver. SSH can also support compression, tunneling, and port forwarding. SSH can be used to send files to a business partner by using a command-line tool such as scp or sftp, or by using a graphical user interface (GUI) tool such as FileZilla or WinSCP. SSH can also be used to remotely access and manage servers or devices over the internet. References:

• https://www.globalscape.com/solutions/secure-file-transfer
• https://www.jscape.com/blog/how-to-securely-transfer-large-files-over-the-internet

 VPN (Virtual Private Network) traffic is encrypted to protect its confidentiality and integrity over the internet. However, this also means that it cannot be inspected by security devices or tools when entering or leaving the network, unless it is decrypted first. This can create a blind spot or a vulnerability for the network security posture, as malicious traffic or data could bypass detection or prevention mechanisms by using VPN encryption

A turnstile is a physical security control that regulates the entry and exit of people into a facility or an area. It can prevent unauthorized access, tailgating, etc., by requiring valid credentials or tokens to pass through

Web serverBotnet Enable DDoS protectionUser RAT Implement a host-based IPSDatabase server Worm Change the default application passwordExecutive KeyloggerDisable vulnerable servicesApplication Backdoor Implement 2FA using push notification

A screenshot of a computer program Description automatically generated with low confidence

Time-based one-time password (TOTP) and hardware token are authentication methods that rely on the possession factor, which means that the user must have a specific device or object in their possession to authenticate. A TOTP is a password that is valid for a short period of time and is generated by an app or a device that the user has. A hardware token is a physical device that displays a code or a password that the user can enter to authenticate. A passphrase (Option A) is a knowledge factor, while facial recognition (Option C), retina scan (Option D), and fingerprints (Option F) are all inherence factors.

https://ptgmedia.pearsoncmg.com/imprint_downloads/pearsonitcertification/bookreg/9780136798675/9780136798675_tea rcard.pdf

https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=yCJyPPvM-xg

Credential stuffing is a type of attack that involves using stolen or leaked usernames and passwords from one website or service to gain unauthorized access to other websites or services that use the same credentials. It can exploit the common practice of reusing passwords across multiple accounts. It is the most likely attack that has been used to compromise the manager’s corporate account, given that the manager is using the same password across multiple external websites and the corporate account, and one of the websites recently experienced a data breach.

Off-site replication is a process of copying and storing data in a remote location that is geographically separate from the primary site. It can ensure minimal downtime for organizations with critical computing equipment located in earthquake-prone areas by providing a backup copy of data that can be accessed and restored in case of a disaster or disruption at the primary site.

A hacktivist is a threat actor who is most likely to be motivated by ideology. A hacktivist is a person or group who uses hacking skills and techniques to promote a political or social cause. Hacktivists may target government, corporate, or religious entities that they disagree with or oppose. Hacktivists may use various methods to achieve their goals, such as defacing websites, leaking sensitive data, launching denial-of-service attacks, or spreading propaganda. Hacktivists are not motivated by financial gain or personal benefit, but rather by their beliefs and values. References:

• https://www.uscybersecurity.net/hacktivist/
• https://www.fortinet.com/resources/cyberglossary/what-is-hacktivism

CIS benchmarks are best practices and standards for securing various operating systems, applications, cloud environments, etc. They are developed by a community of experts and updated regularly to reflect the latest threats and vulnerabilities. They can be used to update and reconfigure the OS-level security configurations to ensure compliance and reduce risks. 

Jailbreaking is a process of bypassing or removing the manufacturer-imposed restrictions on a mobile device’s operating system, allowing users to install unauthorized applications, modify settings, etc. It is a primary security concern for setting up a BYOD program because it can expose the device and its data to malware, vulnerabilities, unauthorized access, etc. 

A weekly, full backup with daily incremental backups would use the least amount of storage space for backups, as it would only store the changes made since the last backup, whether it is a full or incremental backup. Incremental backups are faster and use less storage space than full or differential backups, but they require more time and media to restore data. A full backup is a complete copy of all data, which requires more time and storage space to perform, but allows a faster and easier recovery. A differential backup is a copy of the data that changed since the last full backup, which requires less time and storage space than a full backup, but more than an incremental backup. A differential backup allows a faster recovery than an incremental backup, but slower than a full backup. References:

• https://www.techtarget.com/searchdatabackup/feature/Full-incremental-or-differential-How-to-choose-the-correct-backup-type
• https://www.nakivo.com/blog/backup-types-explained/

Smishing is a type of social engineering technique that involves sending fraudulent or malicious text messages (SMS) to a user’s mobile phone. It can trick the user into providing personal or financial information, clicking on malicious links, downloading malware, etc., by impersonating a legitimate entity or creating a sense of urgency or curiosity.

Code signing is a cryptographic process that allows software developers to digitally sign their code. This ensures that the code has not been tampered with since it was signed and that it came from a trusted source.

Testing input validation on the user input fields is important for preventing malicious code from being entered into a system. However, it does not address the authenticity of the code itself.

Performing static code analysis on the software can help to identify security vulnerabilities. However, it cannot guarantee that the code has not been tampered with.

Ensuring secure cookies are used is important for preventing unauthorized access to user data. However, it does not address the authenticity of the code itself.

Therefore, the most appropriate option to ensure the authenticity of the code created by the company is to perform code signing on the software.

Here are some additional benefits of code signing:

• It can help to prevent malware from being installed on users' computers.
• It can help to protect intellectual property.
• It can help to improve user trust.

Network access restrictions can limit the exposure of systems that have expired vendor support and lack an immediate replacement, as they can prevent unauthorized or unnecessary access to those systems from other devices or networks. Network access restrictions can include firewalls, network segmentation, VPNs, access control lists, and other methods that can filter or block traffic based on predefined rules or policies. Network access restrictions can reduce the security risks introduced by running systems that have expired vendor support, as they can mitigate the impact of potential vulnerabilities or exploits that may affect those systems. Verified References:

• CompTIA Security+ Certification Exam Objectives Version 3.0 https://www.comptia.jp/pdf/Security%2B%20SY0-601%20Exam%20Objectives.pdf (See Domain 2.1: Given a scenario, implement secure protocols.)
• CompTIA Security+ SY0-501 Study Guide https://www.certblaster.com/wp-content/uploads/2017/10/CompTIA-Security-SY0-501-Study-Guide.pdf (See Chapter 2: Technologies and Tools, Section 2.5: Firewall and Network Security Appliances.)

 A dump file is a file that contains the contents of memory at a specific point in time. It can be used for debugging or forensic analysis of a system or an application. It can reveal what was in the memory on the compromised server, such as processes, variables, passwords, encryption keys, etc.

Jailbreaking is a process of bypassing or removing the manufacturer-imposed restrictions on a mobile device’s operating system, allowing users to install unauthorized applications, modify settings, etc. It is a primary security concern for setting up a BYOD program because it can expose the device and its data to malware, vulnerabilities, unauthorized access, etc

Reputation is the perception or opinion that customers, partners, investors, etc., have about a company or its products and services. It can affect the revenue and profitability of a company after a network breach, even if no intellectual property or customer information was stolen, because it can damage the trust and confidence of the stakeholders and reduce their willingness to do business with the company

Capacity planning is the process of determining the resources needed to meet the demand for a service or product. It involves estimating the number of staff members required to sustain the business in the case of a disruption, as well as other factors such as equipment, space, and budget12.

Redundancy, geographic dispersion, and tabletop exercise are not directly related to determining the staff members needed for business continuity. Redundancy is the duplication of critical components or functions to increase reliability and availability2. Geographic dispersion is the distribution of resources across different locations to reduce the impact of a localized disaster2. Tabletop exercise is a simulation of a potential scenario that tests the effectiveness of a business continuity plan

A right-to-audit clause is a contractual provision that allows one party to audit the records and activities of another party to ensure compliance with security policies and standards. It can help a company monitor the ongoing security maturity of a new vendor by conducting annual security audits and identifying any gaps or issues that need to be addressed.

QUESTIO NO: 399

An organization has hired a red team to simulate attacks on its security pos-ture, which Of following will the blue team do after detecting an IOC?

A. Reimage the impacted workstations.

B. Activate runbooks for incident response.

C. Conduct forensics on the compromised system,

D. Conduct passive reconnaissance to gather information

Answer: B

A runbook is a set of predefined procedures and steps that guide an incident response team through the process of handling a security incident. It can help the blue team respond quickly and effectively to an indicator of compromise (IOC) by following the best practices and predefined actions for containment, eradication, recovery and lessons learned.

Tainted training data is a type of data poisoning attack that involves modifying or injecting malicious data into the training dataset of a machine learning or artificial intelligence system. It can cause the system to learn incorrect or biased patterns and produce inaccurate or malicious outcomes. It is the most likely reason for the inaccuracy of the system that is using information collected from third-party providers that have been compromised by an attacker.

The last incremental backup that was conducted 72 hours ago would be the best option to restore the services to a secure state, as it would contain the most recent data before the ransomware infection. Incremental backups only store the changes made since the last backup, so they are faster and use less storage space than full backups. Restoring from an incremental backup would also minimize the data loss and downtime caused by the ransomware attack. References:

• https://www.comptia.org/blog/mature-cybersecurity-response-to-ransomware
• https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=HszU4nEAlFc

CIS benchmarks are best practices and standards for securing various operating systems, applications, cloud environments, etc. They are developed by a community of experts and updated regularly to reflect the latest threats and vulnerabilities. They can be used to update and reconfigure the OS-level security configurations to ensure compliance and reduce risks

To prevent attacks where the main website is directed to the attacker's web server and allowing the attacker to harvest credentials from unsuspecting customers, the company should implement SSL/TLS (Secure Sockets Layer/Transport Layer Security) to encrypt the communication between the web server and the clients. This will prevent attackers from intercepting and tampering with the communication, and will also help to verify the identity of the web server to the clients.

MDM stands for mobile device management, which is a solution that allows organizations to manage and secure mobile devices used by employees. MDM can help prevent data loss and leakage by enforcing policies and restrictions on the devices, such as encryption, password, app installation, remote wipe, and so on. MDM can also monitor and audit the device activity and compliance status. MDM can be the best mitigation strategy to prevent data leakage from an employee’s COPE tablet via cloud storage, as it can block or limit the access to cloud services, or apply data protection measures such as containerization or encryption. References:

• https://www.blackberry.com/us/en/solutions/corporate-owned-personally-enabled
• https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/mobile-device-management/

To prevent such a breach in the future, the BEST control to use would be Password complexity.

Password complexity is a security measure that requires users to create strong passwords that are difficult to guess or crack. It can help prevent unauthorized access to systems and data by making it more difficult for attackers to guess or crack passwords.

The best control to use to prevent a breach like the one shown in the logs is password complexity. Password complexity requires users to create passwords that are harder to guess, by including a mix of upper and lowercase letters, numbers, and special characters. In the logs, the attacker was able to guess the user's password using a dictionary attack, which means that the password was not complex enough. References:

• CompTIA Security+ Certification Exam Objectives - Exam SY0-601

A - a mantrap can trap those personnal with bad intension(preventive), and kind of same as detecting, since you will know if someone is trapped there(detective), and it can deter those personnal from approaching as well(deterrent) B - security guards can sure do the same thing as above, preventing malicious personnal from entering(preventive+deterrent), and notice those personnal as well(detective)

ISO 27001 is an international standard that outlines the requirements for an Information Security Management System (ISMS). It provides a framework for managing and protecting sensitive information using risk management processes. Acquiring an ISO 27001 certification assures customers that the organization meets security standards and follows best practices for information security management. It helps to build customer trust and confidence in the organization's ability to protect their sensitive information. References: CompTIA Security+ Certification Exam Objectives, Exam Domain 1.0: Attacks, Threats, and Vulnerabilities, 1.2 Given a scenario, analyze indicators of compromise and determine the type of malware, p. 7

Detailed Explanation: The attack being attempted is directory traversal, which is a web application attack that allows an attacker to access files and directories outside of the web root directory. A WAF can help mitigate this attack by detecting and blocking attempts to access files outside of the web root directory.

References: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide: Exam SY0-601, Chapter 4: Securing Application Development and Deployment, p. 191

Hashing is a cryptographic function that produces a unique fixed-size output (i.e., hash value) from an input (i.e., data). The hash value is a digital fingerprint of the data, which means that if the data changes, so too does the hash value. By comparing the hash value of the downloaded file with the hash value provided by the security website, the security analyst can verify that the file has not been altered in transit or corrupted.

Awareness training should be implemented to educate users on the risks of clicking on malicious URLs. References: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide: Exam SY0-601, Chapter 9

The output of the “netstat -ano” command shows that there are two connections to the same IP address and port number. This indicates that there are two active sessions between the client and server.

The issue of users having to provide their credentials twice to log in is known as a double login prompt issue. This issue can occur due to various reasons such as incorrect configuration of authentication settings, incorrect configuration of web server settings, or issues with the client’s browser.

Based on the output of the “netstat -ano” command, it is difficult to determine the exact cause of the issue. However, it is possible that an attacker is intercepting traffic between the client and server and stealing user credentials. This type of attack is known as C. ARP poisoning.

ARP poisoning is a type of attack where an attacker sends fake ARP messages to associate their MAC address with the IP address of another device on the network. This allows them to intercept traffic between the two devices and steal sensitive information such as user credentials.

During a penetration testing exercise, the white team is responsible for acting as a referee and providing oversight and support to ensure that the testing is conducted safely and effectively. They may also be responsible for determining the rules and guidelines of the exercise, monitoring the progress of the teams, and providing feedback and insights on the strengths and weaknesses of the organization's security measures.

A Business Impact Analysis (BIA) is a critical component of a Business Continuity Plan (BCP). It identifies and prioritizes critical business functions and determines the impact of their disruption. References: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide 601, Chapter 10

SOC 2 (Service Organization Control 2) is a type of audit report that evaluates the controls of service providers to verify their compliance with industry standards for security, availability, processing integrity, confidentiality, and privacy. A Type 2 report is based on an audit that tests the effectiveness of the controls over a period of time, unlike a Type 1 report which only evaluates the design of the controls at a specific point in time.

A SOC 2 Type 2 report would provide evidence of the vendor's security controls and how effective they are over time, which can help the security manager assess the vendor's security posture despite the vendor not allowing for a direct audit.

The security manager should request a SOC 2 Type 2 report to assess the security posture of the vendor. References: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide: Exam SY0-601, Chapter 5

When malware is discovered on a host, the best course of action is to quarantine the host from other parts of the network. This prevents the malware from spreading and potentially infecting other hosts. Adding a deny-all rule to the host in the network ACL may prevent legitimate traffic from being processed, implementing a network-wide scan is time-consuming and may not be necessary, and revoking the client's network access certificates is an extreme measure that may not be warranted. References: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide, pages 113-114

An uncredentialed scan would miss missing patches for third-party software on Windows workstations and servers. A credentialed scan, however, can scan the registry and file system to determine the patch level of third-party applications. References: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide by Emmett Dulaney, Chapter 4: Identity and Access Management, The Importance of Credentialing Scans

Configuring the guest wireless network on a separate VLAN from the company's internal wireless network will prevent visitors from accessing company resources. References: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide: Exam SY0-601, Chapter 4

This scenario describes an influence campaign, where false information is spread to influence or manipulate people's beliefs or actions. In this case, the misinformation led eligible voters to avoid polling places, which influenced the outcome of the election.

The best option that describes what is impacted the most by the hackers’ attack and threat would be D. Reputation. Reputation is the perception or opinion that others have about a person or an organization. Reputation can affect the trust, credibility, and success of a person or an organization. In this scenario, if the hackers send the unfavorable pictures to the press, it can damage the reputation of the Chief Executive Officer and the company, and cause negative consequences such as loss of customers, partners, investors, or employees.

Symmetric encryption allows data to be encrypted and decrypted using the same key. This is useful when the data needs to be accessed and manipulated while still encrypted. References: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide, Exam SY0-601, Chapter 6

One of the risks of using legacy software is the lack of vendor support. This means that the vendor may no longer provide security patches, software updates, or technical support for the software. This leaves the software vulnerable to new security threats and vulnerabilities that could be exploited by attackers.

Enforcing the use of a controlled trusted source of container images is the best solution to prevent incidents like the introduction of a zero-day vulnerability through container images from occurring again. References: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide by Emmett Dulaney, Chapter 11: Cloud Security, Container Security

Trusted Automated Exchange of Intelligence Information (TAXII) is a standard protocol that enables the sharing of cyber threat intelligence between organizations. It allows organizations to automate the exchange of information in a secure and timely manner. References: CompTIA Security+ Certification Exam Objectives - 3.6 Given a scenario, implement secure network architecture concepts. Study Guide: Chapter 4, page 167.

Based on the given information, the most likely type of malware infecting the hosts is a RAT (Remote Access Trojan). RATs are often used for stealthy unauthorized access to a victim's computer, and they can evade traditional antivirus software through various sophisticated techniques. In particular, the fact that the malware is communicating with external IP addresses during specific hours suggests that it may be under the control of an attacker who is issuing commands from a remote location. Ransomware, polymorphic malware, and worms are also possible culprits, but the context of the question suggests that a RAT is the most likely answer. 

When allowing mobile BYOD devices to access network resources, using a captive portal for user authentication and authenticating users using OAuth are both best practices for authentication and infrastructure security. A captive portal requires users to authenticate before accessing the network and can be used to enforce policies and restrictions. OAuth allows users to authenticate using third-party providers, reducing the risk of password reuse and credential theft. References: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide, pages 217-218, 225-226

The best option that will help to protect the PC from malicious files on the storage device would be A. Change the default settings on the PC. Changing the default settings on the PC can include disabling the autorun or autoplay feature, which can prevent malicious files from executing automatically when the storage device is plugged in. Changing the default settings can also include enabling antivirus software, updating the operating system and applications, and configuring user account control and permissions.

The input "admin' or 1=1--" in the username field is an example of SQL injection (SQLi) attack. In this case, the attacker is attempting to bypass authentication by injecting SQL code into the username field that will cause the authentication check to always return true. References: CompTIA Security+ SY0-601 Exam Objectives: 3.1 Given a scenario, use appropriate software tools to assess the security posture of an organization.

Choose Your Own Device (CYOD) is a deployment model that allows employees to select from a predefined list of devices. It provides employees with flexibility in device preference while allowing the company to maintain control and security over company data and infrastructure. CYOD deployment model provides a compromise between the strict control provided by Corporate-Owned, Personally Enabled (COPE) deployment model and the flexibility provided by Bring Your Own Device (BYOD) deployment model. References: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide, Chapter 6: Securing Application, Data, and Host Security, 6.5 Implement Mobile Device Management, pp. 334-335

DNS poisoning, also known as DNS spoofing or DNS cache poisoning, is a form of computer security hacking in which corrupt Domain Name System (DNS) data is introduced into the DNS resolver’s cache, causing the name server to return an incorrect result record, such as an IP address. This results in traffic being diverted to the attacker’s computer (or any other malicious destination).

DNS poisoning can be performed by various methods, such as:

• Intercepting and forging DNS responses from legitimate servers
• Compromising DNS servers and altering their records
• Exploiting vulnerabilities in DNS protocols or implementations
• Sending malicious emails or links that trigger DNS queries with poisoned responses

According to CompTIA Security+ SY0-601 Exam Objectives 1.4 Given a scenario, analyze potential indicators to determine the type of attack:

“DNS poisoning, also known as DNS spoofing or DNS cache poisoning, is a form of computer security hacking in which corrupt Domain Name System (DNS) data is introduced into the DNS resolver’s cache, causing the name server to return an incorrect result record.”

References: https://www.comptia.org/certifications/security#examdetails https://www.comptia.org/content/guides/comptia-security-sy0-601-exam-objectives https://www.cloudflare.com/learning/dns/dns-cache-poisoning/

WAP stands for wireless access point, which is a device that allows wireless devices to connect to a wired network using Wi-Fi or Bluetooth. WAP placement refers to where and how WAPs are installed in a building or area.

WAP placement should be closely coordinated between the technology, cybersecurity, and physical security departments because it affects several aspects of network performance and security, such as:

• Coverage: WAP placement determines how well wireless devices can access the network throughout the building or area. WAPs should be placed in locations that provide optimal signal strength and avoid interference from other sources.
• Capacity: WAP placement determines how many wireless devices can connect to the network simultaneously without affecting network speed or quality. WAPs should be placed in locations that balance network load and avoid congestion or bottlenecks.
• Security: WAP placement determines how vulnerable wireless devices are to eavesdropping or hacking attacks from outside or inside sources. WAPs should be placed in locations that minimize exposure to unauthorized access and maximize encryption and authentication methods.

A SIEM is a security solution that helps detect security incidents by monitoring for notable events across the enterprise. A detective control is a control that is designed to detect security incidents and respond to them. Therefore, a SIEM represents a detective control.

Detailed Explanation: Recovery Point Objective (RPO) is the maximum duration of time that an organization can tolerate data loss in the event of an outage. It identifies the point in time when data recovery must begin, and any data loss beyond that point is considered unacceptable.

Mean Time To Repair (MTTR) is a maintenance metric that measures the average time required to troubleshoot and restore failed equipment. References: CompTIA Security+ Certification Exam Objectives - 4.6 Explain the importance of secure coding practices. Study Guide: Chapter 7, page 323.

A data protection officer (DPO) is a role that oversees the data protection strategy and compliance of an organization. A DPO is responsible for ensuring that the organization follows data protection laws and regulations, such as the General Data Protection Regulation (GDPR), and protects the privacy rights of data subjects. A DPO also acts as a liaison between the organization and data protection authorities, as well as data subjects and other stakeholders.

A DPO would most likely have direct access to the senior management team, as they need to report on data protection issues, risks, and incidents, and advise on data protection policies and practices.

The other options are not correct because:

• A. Data custodian is a role that implements and maintains the technical controls and procedures for data security and integrity. A data custodian does not have direct access to the senior management team, as they are more involved in operational tasks than strategic decisions.
• B. Data owner is a role that determines the classification and usage of data within an organization. A data owner does not have direct access to the senior management team, as they are more involved in business functions than data protection compliance.
• D. Data controller is a role that determines the purposes and means of processing personal data within an organization. A data controller does not have direct access to the senior management team, as they are more involved in data processing activities than data protection oversight.

According to CompTIA Security+ SY0-601 Exam Objectives 2.3 Given a scenario, implement secure protocols:

“A data protection officer (DPO) is a role that oversees the data protection strategy and compliance of an organization.”

References: https://www.comptia.org/certifications/security#examdetails https://www.comptia.org/content/guides/comptia-security-sy0-601-exam-objectives https://gdpr-info.eu/issues/data-protection-officer/

The Center for Internet Security (CIS) uses six initial steps that provide basic control over system security, including hardware and software inventory, vulnerability management, and continuous monitoring to minimize risk in all network environments. References:

• CompTIA Security+ Certification Exam Objectives 1.1: Compare and contrast different types of security concepts.
• CompTIA Security+ Study Guide, Sixth Edition, pages 15-16

Intelligence fusion is a process that involves aggregating and analyzing data from multiple sources, including artificial intelligence, to provide insight on current cyberintrusions, phishing, and other malicious cyberactivity.

References: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide, Exam SY0-601, 4th Edition, Glossary, p. 767.

The Diamond Model is a framework for analyzing cyber threats that focuses on four key elements: adversary, capability, infrastructure, and victim. By analyzing these elements, security researchers can gain a better understanding of the threat landscape and develop more effective security strategies.

Geofencing is a technology used in mobile device management (MDM) to allow administrators to define geographical boundaries within which mobile devices can operate. This can be used to enforce location-based policies, such as ensuring that devices can be tracked and wiped if lost or stolen. Additionally, encryption can be enforced on the devices to ensure the protection of sensitive data in the event of theft or loss. References:

• CompTIA Security+ Study Guide, Exam SY0-601, 4th Edition, Chapter 7

When selecting an encryption method for data that needs to remain confidential for a specific length of time, the longevity of the encryption algorithm should be considered to ensure that the data remains secure for the required period. References: CompTIA Security+ Certification Exam Objectives - 3.2 Given a scenario, use appropriate cryptographic methods. Study Guide: Chapter 4, page 131.

A communications plan should be used to inform the affected parties about the sale of sensitive user data on a website. The communications plan should detail how the organization will handle media inquiries, how to communicate with customers, and how to respond to other interested parties.

A phishing campaign is a simulated attack that tests a user's ability to recognize attacks over the organization's email system. Phishing campaigns can be used to train users on how to identify and report suspicious emails.

References: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide, Exam SY0-601, 4th Edition, Chapter 2: Technologies and Tools, pp. 85-86.

A Web Application Firewall (WAF) is a security solution that protects web applications from various types of attacks such as SQL injection, cross-site scripting (XSS), and others. It is typically deployed in front of web servers to inspect incoming traffic and filter out malicious requests.

To protect the company’s website from malicious web requests over SSL, a decryption certificate is needed to decrypt the SSL traffic before it reaches the WAF. This allows the WAF to inspect the traffic and filter out malicious requests.

Network access control (NAC) is a technique that restricts access to a network based on the identity, role, device, location, or other criteria of the users or devices. NAC can prevent unauthorized or malicious devices from connecting to a network and accessing sensitive data or resources.

Guards are physical security personnel who monitor and control access to a facility. Guards can prevent unauthorized or malicious individuals from entering a facility and plugging in a remotely accessible device.

Differential backup is a type of backup that backs up all data that has changed since the last full backup. This backup method offers faster recovery than a full backup, as it only needs to restore the full backup and the differential backup, reducing the amount of data that needs to be restored. It also uses less storage than a full backup as it only stores the changes made from the last full backup. 

The technique of gaining access to a dual-homed multifunction device and then gaining shell access on another networked asset is an example of pivoting. References: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide by Emmett Dulaney, Chapter 8: Application, Data, and Host Security, Enumeration and Penetration Testing

To verify that a client-server (non-web) application is sending encrypted traffic, a security analyst can use OpenSSL. OpenSSL is a software library that provides cryptographic functions, including encryption and decryption, in support of various security protocols, including SSL/TLS. It can be used to check whether a client-server application is using encryption to protect traffic. References:

• CompTIA Security+ Certification Exam Objectives - Exam SY0-601

Defense in depth is a resiliency technique that involves implementing multiple layers of security controls to protect against different types of threats. In this scenario, the NIPS likely provided protection at a different layer than the boundary firewall, demonstrating the effectiveness of defense in depth. References: CompTIA Security+ Certification Exam Objectives (SY0-601)

Data loss prevention (DLP) is a technology used to actively monitor for specific file types being transmitted on the network. DLP solutions can prevent the unauthorized transfer of sensitive information, such as credit card numbers and social security numbers, by monitoring data in motion.

References: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide, Exam SY0-601, 4th Edition, Chapter 2: Technologies and Tools, pp. 99-102.

Detailed Explanation: Data Loss Prevention (DLP) can help prevent employees from stealing data by monitoring and controlling access to sensitive data. DLP can also detect and block attempts to transfer sensitive data outside of the organization, such as via email, file transfer, or cloud storage.

References: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide: Exam SY0-601, Chapter 10: Managing Identity and Access, p. 465

 This type of attack occurs when an attacker replaces a digitally signed document with another version that has a different hash value. The author would be able to notice the additional verbiage, however, since the hash value would have changed, they would not be able to validate an integrity issue.

Identification is the first step in the incident response process, which involves recognizing that an incident has occurred. Containment is the second step, followed by eradication, recovery, and lessons learned.

References: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide, Exam SY0-601, 4th Edition, Chapter 10: Incident Response and Recovery, pp. 437-441.

The most likely cause of the document-scanning software program not responding when launched by the end user is that the software was not added to the application whitelist. An application whitelist is a list of approved software applications that are allowed to run on a system. If the software is not on the whitelist, it may be blocked from running by the system's security policies. Adding the software to the whitelist should resolve the issue and allow the program to run. References: https://www.techopedia.com/definition/31541/application-whitelisting

Federating user digital identities using SAML-based protocols enables Single Sign-On (SSO), which allows users to log in once and access multiple applications without having to enter their credentials for each one. References:

• CompTIA Security+ Certification Exam Objectives 1.3: Explain authentication and access controls.
• CompTIA Security+ Study Guide, Sixth Edition, pages 41-42

The use of a drone for perimeter and boundary monitoring can raise privacy concerns, as it may capture video and images of individuals on or near the monitored premises. The company should take measures to ensure that privacy rights are not violated. References:

• CompTIA Security+ Study Guide, Exam SY0-601, 4th Edition, Chapter 8

The CISO is using the NIST Risk Management Framework (RMF) to evaluate the environment for the new ERP system. The RMF is a structured process for managing risks that involves categorizing the system, selecting controls, implementing controls, assessing controls, and authorizing the system.

References: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide, Exam SY0-601, 4th Edition, Chapter 4: Risk Management, pp. 188-191.

The attackers are using card skimming to steal shoppers' credit card information, which they use to make online purchases. References:

• CompTIA Security+ Study Guide Exam SY0-601, Chapter 5

The suspicious activity reported by the application owner, combined with the recent compromise of the jump box and the use of NTLM authentication, suggests that an attacker is likely using a pass-the-hash attack to gain unauthorized access to the financial application. This type of attack involves stealing hashed passwords from memory and then using them to authenticate as the compromised user without needing to know the user's plaintext password. References: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide, Exam SY0-601, 4th Edition, Chapter 5

The network analyst should enable Wi-Fi Protected Setup (WPS) to allow users to connect to the wireless access point securely without having to remember passwords. WPS allows users to connect to a wireless network by pressing a button or entering a PIN instead of entering a password.

Perfect forward secrecy would ensure that it cannot be used to decrypt all historical data. Perfect forward secrecy (PFS) is a security protocol that generates a unique session key for each session between two parties. This ensures that even if one session key is compromised, it cannot be used to decrypt other sessions.

Bluesnarfing is a hacking technique that exploits Bluetooth connections to snatch data from a wireless device. An attacker can perform bluesnarfing when the Bluetooth function is on and your device is discoverable by other devices within range. In some cases, attackers can even make calls from their victim’s phone1.

The company is implementing privileged access management, which provides just-in-time permissions for administrative functions.

To understand the threat and retrieve possible Indicators of Compromise (IoCs) from a phishing email containing a malicious document, a security analyst should install a sandbox to run the malicious payload in a safe environment. References: CompTIA Security+ Certification Exam Objectives - 2.5 Given a scenario, analyze potential indicators to determine the type of attack. Study Guide: Chapter 5, page 209.

Shredding may be the most secure and cost-effective way to destroy electronic data in any media that contain hard drives or solid-state drives and have reached their end-of-life1. Shredding reduces electronic devices to pieces no larger than 2 millimeters2. Therefore, shredding is the most secure but least expensive data destruction method for data that is stored on hard drives.

A tabletop exercise is a type of disaster recovery test that simulates a disaster scenario in a discussion-based format, without actually disrupting operations or requiring physical testing of recovery procedures. It is the least time-consuming type of test for the disaster recovery team.

Account audits are periodic reviews of user accounts to ensure that they are being used appropriately and that access is being granted and revoked in accordance with the organization's policies and procedures. If the compliance team had been conducting regular account audits, they would have identified the users who left the company six months ago and ensured that their access was revoked in a timely manner. This would have prevented the compliance violation caused by these users still having access to the company's systems.

To prevent this compliance violation, the company should implement account audits. An account audit is a regular review of all user accounts to ensure that they are being used properly and that they are in compliance with the company's security policies. By conducting regular account audits, the company can identify inactive or unused accounts and remove access for those users. This will help to prevent compliance violations and ensure that only authorized users have access to the company's systems and data.

A red-team test is a type of security assessment that simulates a real-world attack on an organization’s network, systems, applications, and people. The goal of a red-team test is to evaluate the organization’s security posture, identify vulnerabilities and gaps, and test the effectiveness of its detection and response capabilities. A red-team test is usually performed by a group of highly skilled security professionals who act as adversaries and use various tools and techniques to breach the organization’s defenses. A red-team test is often conducted without the knowledge or consent of most of the organization’s staff, except for a few senior executives who authorize and oversee the exercise.

References: https://www.comptia.org/certifications/security#examdetails https://www.comptia.org/content/guides/comptia-security-sy0-601-exam-objectives https://cybersecurity.att.com/blogs/security-essentials/what-is-red-teaming

Password history is a policy that prevents users from reusing their previous passwords. This can reduce the risk of password cracking or compromise. Geolocation is a policy that restricts users from logging in from certain locations based on their IP address. This can prevent unauthorized access from high-risk countries or regions. References: https://www.comptia.org/content/guides/what-is-identity-and-access-management

False rejection Short Explanation: A false rejection occurs when a biometric system fails to recognize an authorized user and denies access. This can happen due to poor quality of the biometric sample, environmental factors, or system errors. References: https://www.comptia.org/blog/wh at-is-biometrics

A log collector can collect logs from various sources, such as servers, devices, applications, or network components, and forward them to a central source for analysis and storage23.