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NSE7_SDW-7.2 Fortinet NSE 7 - SD-WAN 7.2 Questions and Answers

Questions 4

Refer to the exhibit.

Based on the exhibit, which two actions does FortiGate perform on traffic passing through port2? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

FortiGate does not change the routing information on existing sessions that use a valid gateway, after a route change.

B.

FortiGate performs routing lookups for new sessions only, after a route change.

C.

FortiGate always blocks all traffic, after a route change.

D.

FortiGate flushes all routing information from the session table, after a route change.

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Questions 5

Which action fortigate performs on the traffic that is subject to a per-IP traffic shaper of 10 Mbps?

Options:

A.

FortiGate applies traffic shaping to the original traffic direction only.

B.

FortiGate shares 10 Mbps of bandwidth equally among all source IP addresses.

RIAS

C.

Fortigate limits each source ip address to a maximum bandwidth of 10 Mbps.

D.

FortiGate guarantees a minimum of 10 Mbps of bandwidth to each source IP address.

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Questions 6

What is a benefit of using application steering in SD-WAN?

Options:

A.

The traffic always skips the regular policy routes.

B.

You steer traffic based on the detected application.

C.

You do not need to enable SSL inspection.

D.

You do not need to configure firewall policies that accept the SD-WAN traffic.

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Questions 7

Refer to the exhibit.

Which statement explains the output shown in the exhibit?

Options:

A.

FortiGate performed standard FIB routing on the session.

B.

FortiGate will not re-evaluate the session following a firewall policy change.

C.

FortiGate used192.2.0.1as the gateway for the original direction of the traffic.

D.

FortiGate must re-evaluate the session due to routing change.

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Questions 8

What does enabling theexchange-interface-ipsetting enable FortiGate devices to exchange?

Options:

A.

The gateway address of their IPsec interfaces

B.

The tunnel ID of their IPsec interfaces

C.

The IP address of their IPsec interfaces

D.

The name of their IPsec interfaces

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Questions 9

Which two statements describe how IPsec phase 1 main mode is different from aggressive mode when performing IKE negotiation? (Choose two )

Options:

A.

A peer ID is included in the first packet from the initiator, along with suggested security policies.

B.

XAuth is enabled as an additional level of authentication, which requires a username and password.

C.

A total of six packets are exchanged between an initiator and a responder instead of three packets.

D.

The use of Diffie Hellman keys is limited by the responder and needs initiator acceptance.

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Questions 10

Two hub-and-spoke groups are connected through a site-to-site IPsec VPN between Hub 1 and Hub 2. The administrator configured ADVPN on both hub-and-spoke groups.

Which two outcomes are expected if a user in Toronto sends traffic to London? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

London generates an IKE information message that contains the Toronto public IP address.

B.

Traffic from Toronto to London triggers the dynamic negotiation of a direct site-to-site VPN.

C.

Toronto needs to establish a site-to-site tunnel with Hub 2 to bypass Hub 1.

D.

The first packets from Toronto to London are routed through Hub 1 then to Hub 2.

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Questions 11

Refer to the exhibit.

FortiGate has multiple dial-up VPN interfaces incoming on port1 that match only FIRST_VPN.

Which two configuration changes must be made to both IPsec VPN interfaces to allow incoming connections to match all possible IPsec dial-up interfaces? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

Specify a unique peer ID for each dial-up VPN interface.

B.

Use different proposals are used between the interfaces.

C.

Configure the IKE mode to be aggressive mode.

D.

Use unique Diffie Hellman groups on each VPN interface.

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Questions 12

What are two reasons why FortiGate would be unable to complete the zero-touch provisioning process? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

The FortiGate cloud key has not been added to the FortiGate cloud portal.

B.

FortiDeploy has connected with FortiGate and provided the initial configuration to contact FortiManager

C.

The zero-touch provisioning process has completed internally, behind FortiGate.

D.

FortiGate has obtained a configuration from the platform template in FortiGate cloud.

E.

A factory reset performed on FortiGate.

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Questions 13

Which two interfaces are considered overlay links? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

LAG

B.

IPsec

C.

Physical

D.

GRE

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Questions 14

In which SD-WAN template field can you use a metadata variable?

Options:

A.

You can use metadata variables only to define interface members and the gateway IP.

B.

All SD-WAN template fields support metadata variables.

C.

Any field Identified with a dollar sign ($) in a magnifying glass.

D.

Any field identified with an "M" in a circle.

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Questions 15

Which two statements describe how IPsec phase 1 main mode id different from aggressive mode when performing IKE negotiation? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

A peer ID is included in the first packet from the initiator, along with suggested security policies.

B.

XAuth is enabled as an additional level of authentication, which requires a username and password.

C.

Three packets are exchanged between an initiator and a responder instead of six packets.

D.

The use of Diffie Hellman keys is limited by the responder and needs initiator acceptance.

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Questions 16

Which two statements are true about using SD-WAN to steer local-out traffic? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

FortiGate does not consider the source address of the packet when matching an SD-WAN rule for local-out traffic.

B.

By default, local-out traffic does not use SD-WAN.

C.

By default, FortiGate does not check if the selected member has a valid route to the destination.

D.

You must configure each local-out feature individually, to use SD-WAN.

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Questions 17

Refer to the exhibit.

In a dual-hub hub-and-spoke SD-WAN deployment, which is a benefit of disabling theanti-replaysetting on the hubs?

Options:

A.

It instructs the hub to disable the reordering of TCP packets on behalf of the receiver, to improve performance.

B.

It instructs the hub to disable TCP sequence number check, which is required for TCP sessions originated from spokes to fail over back and forth between the hubs.

C.

It instructs the hub to not check the ESP sequence numbers on IPsec traffic, to improve performance.

D.

It instructs the hub to skip content inspection on TCP traffic, to improve performance.

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Questions 18

Refer to the exhibit.

Which conclusion about the packet debug flow output is correct?

Options:

A.

The original traffic exceeded the maximum packets per second of the outgoing interface, and the packet was dropped.

B.

The reply traffic exceeded the maximum bandwidth configured in the traffic shaper, and the packet was dropped.

C.

The original traffic exceeded the maximum bandwidth of the outgoing interface, and the packet was dropped.

D.

The original traffic exceeded the maximum bandwidth configured in the traffic shaper, and the packet was dropped.

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Questions 19

Which type statements about the SD-WAN members are true? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

You can manually define the SD-WAN members sequence number.

B.

Interfaces of type virtual wire pair can be used as SD-WAN members.

C.

Interfaces of type VLAN can be used as SD-WAN members.

D.

An SD-WAN member can belong to two or more SD-WAN zones.

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Questions 20

Refer to the exhibit.

Based on the output shown in the exhibit, which two criteria on the SD-WAN member configuration can be used to select an outgoing interface in an SD-WAN rule? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

Set priority 10.

B.

Set cost 15.

C.

Set load-balance-mode source-ip-ip-based.

D.

Set source 100.64.1.1.

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Questions 21

What are two reasons for using FortiManager to organize and manage the network for a group of FortiGate devices? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

It simplifies the deployment and administration of SD-WAN on managed FortiGate devices.

B.

It improves SD-WAN performance on the managed FortiGate devices.

C.

It sends probe signals as health checks to the beacon servers on behalf of FortiGate.

D.

It acts as a policy compliance entity to review all managed FortiGate devices.

E.

It reduces WAN usage on FortiGate devices by acting as a local FortiGuard server.

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Questions 22

Refer to the exhibit.

The device exchanges routes using IBGP.

Which two statements are correct about the IBGP configuration and routing information on the device? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

Each BGP route is three hops away from the destination.

B.

ibgp-multipath is disabled.

C.

additional-path is enabled.

D.

You can run the get router info routing-table database command to display the additional paths.

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Questions 23

Which two statements about SD-WAN central management are true? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

It does not allow you to monitor the status of SD-WAN members.

B.

It is enabled or disabled on a per-ADOM basis.

C.

It is enabled by default.

D.

It uses templates to configure SD-WAN on managed devices.

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Questions 24

In the default SD-WAN minimum configuration, which two statements are correct when traffic matches the default implicit SD-WAN rule? (Choose two )

Options:

A.

Traffic has matched none of the FortiGate policy routes.

B.

Matched traffic failed RPF and was caught by the rule.

C.

The FIB lookup resolved interface was the SD-WAN interface.

D.

An absolute SD-WAN rule was defined and matched traffic.

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Questions 25

Which two statements about the SD-WAN zone configuration are true? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

Theservice-sla-tie-breaksetting enables you to configure preferred member selection based on the best route to the destination.

B.

You can delete the default zones.

C.

The default zones are virtual-wan-link and SASE.

D.

An SD-WAN member can belong to two or more zones.

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Questions 26

Which are two benefits of using CLI templates in FortiManager? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

You can reference meta fields.

B.

You can configure interfaces as SD-WAN members without having to remove references first.

C.

You can configure FortiManager to sync local configuration changes made on the managed device, to the CLI template.

D.

You can configure advanced CLI settings.

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Questions 27

Which statement about using BGP routes in SD-WAN is true?

Options:

A.

Learned routes can be used as dynamic destinations in SD-WAN rules.

B.

You must use BGP to route traffic for both overlay and underlay links.

C.

You must configure AS path prepending.

D.

You must use external BGP.

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Questions 28

Refer to the exhibits.

Exhibit A shows two IPsec templates to define Branch_IPsec_1 and Branch_IPsec_2. Each template defines a VPN tunnel.

Exhibit B shows the error message that FortiManager displayed when the administrator tried to assign the second template to the FortiGate device.

Which statement best explain the cause for this issue?

Options:

A.

You can assign only one template with a tunnel of fype static to each FortiGate device

B.

You can define only one IPsec tunnel from branch devices to HUB1.

C.

You can assign only one IPsec template to each FortiGate device.

D.

You should review the branch1_fgt configuration for the already configured tunnel with the name HUB1-VPN2.

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Questions 29

Exhibit B –

Exhibit A shows the system interface with the static routes and exhibit B shows the firewall policies on the managed FortiGate.

Based on the FortiGate configuration shown in the exhibits, what issue might you encounter when creating an SD-WAN zone for port1 and port2?

Options:

A.

port1 is assigned a manual IP address.

B.

port1 is referenced in a firewall policy.

C.

port2 is referenced in a static route.

D.

port1 and port2 are not administratively down.

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Exam Code: NSE7_SDW-7.2
Exam Name: Fortinet NSE 7 - SD-WAN 7.2
Last Update: Mar 13, 2025
Questions: 99
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