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ISTQB-CTFL ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level (CTFL) v4.0 Questions and Answers

Questions 4

Which of the following statements about the test pyramid is TRUE?

Options:

A.

Each layer of the test pyramid groups tests related to a single non-functional quality charactenstic.

B.

The higher the layer of the test pyramid, the more production code a single automated test within the layer tends to cover

C.

The higher the layer of the test pyramid, the more maintainable a single automated test within the layer tends to be

D.

The higher the layer of the test pyramid, the more isolated a single automated test within the layer tends to be.

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Questions 5

Which one of the following statements IS NOT a valid objective of testing?

Options:

A.

To build confidence in the level of quality of the test object.

B.

To find all defects in a product, ensuring the product is defect free.

C.

To find failures and defects

D.

To evaluate work products such as requirements, user stories, design, and code.

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Questions 6

Which two of the following statements describe the advantages provided by good traceability between the test basis and test work products?

I. Analyzing the impact of changes.

ii. A measure of code quality.

iii. Accurate test estimation.

iv. Making testing auditable.

Select the correct answer:

Options:

A.

i and ii

B.

i and iv

C.

i and iii

D.

ii and iii

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Questions 7

A software company decides to invest in reviews of various types. The thought process they have is that each artifact needs to be reviewed using only one of the review methods depending on the criticality of the artifact.

Options:

A.

The thought process is incorrect. The whole company should adopt same standard for review of all artifacts.

B.

The thought process is correct. The whole company should decide or the review method based on their CMM level.

C.

The thought process is incorrect. Same artifact can be reviewed using different review methods

D.

The thought process is correct. It wastes time to review same artifact using efferent review methods

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Questions 8

In Agile teams, testers closely collaborate with all other team members. This close collaboration could be problematic and result in testing-related organizational risks.

Which TWO of the following organization risks could be encountered?

I.Testers lose motivation and fail at their core tasks.

ii.Close interaction with developers causes a loss of the appropriate tester mindset.

iii.Testers are not able to keep pace with incoming changes in time-constrained iterations.

iv.Testers, once they have acquired technical development or business skills, leave the testing team.

Options:

A.

ii and iii

B.

i and iii

C.

i and ii

D.

ii and iv

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Questions 9

Which of the following best describes the relationship between a test progress report and a test summary report?

Options:

A.

The test report prepared during a test activity may be referred to as a test progress report, while a test report prepared at the end of a test activity may be referred to as a test summary report.

B.

The test report prepared during a test activity may be referred to as a test summary report, while a test report prepared at the end of a test activity may be referred to as a test progress report.

C.

There is no difference between a test progress report and a test summary report.

D.

Both the test progress report and the test summary report should always be generated via an automated tool.

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Questions 10

Which of the following is a possible reason for introducing a defect in software code?

Options:

A.

Rushing to meet a tight deadline to turn code over for testing

B.

Improper unit testing

C.

Improper system testing

D.

Focus on static testing over dynamic testing

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Questions 11

Which of the following statements refers to good testing practice to be applied regardless of the chosen software development model?

Options:

A.

Tests should be written in executable format before the code is written and should act as executable specifications that drive coding

B.

Test levels should be defined such that the exit criteria of one level are part of the entry criteria for the next level

C.

Test objectives should be the same for all test levels, although the number of tests designed at various levels can vary significantly

D.

Involvement of testers in work product reviews should occur as early as possible to take advantage of the early testing principle

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Questions 12

The following chart represents metrics related to testing of a project that was competed. Indicate what is represented by tie lines A, B and the axes X.Y

A)

B)

C)

D)

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

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Questions 13

Which of the following statements about branch coverage is true?

Options:

A.

The minimum number of test cases needed to achieve full branch coverage, is usually lower than that needed to achieve full statement coverage

B.

If full branch coverage has been achieved, then all unconditional branches within the code have surely been exercised

C.

If full branch coverage has been achieved, then all combinations of conditions in a decision table have surely been exercised

D.

Exercising at least one of the decision outcomes for all decisions within the code, ensures achieving full branch coverage

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Questions 14

The following diagram displays the logical dependencies between requirements and the individual requirement priorities. For example, "R2->R3" means that R3 is dependent on R2. Priority is indicated by the number next to the letter ”P" i.e. P1 has a higher priority than P2.

Which one of the following options best describes the test execution sequence using both requirement dependency and priority

Options:

A.

R2. R1, R3. R4. R5, R6. R7, R8.

B.

R1, R2, R3, R4, R5, R6, R7, R8.

C.

R2, R4. R8, R5, R1, R6, R3, R7.

D.

. R2, R1,R3,R7,R6,R5,R4,R8.

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Questions 15

You are an experienced tester on a project with incomplete requirements and under pressure to deploy.

What type of testing should you do?

Options:

A.

Decision-based testing.

B.

Checklist-based testing.

C.

Error guessing.

D.

Exploratory testing.

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Questions 16

Which of the following statements best describe Behavior-Driven Development (BDD)?

Options:

A.

A collaborative approach that allows every stakeholder to contribute to how the software component must behave.

B.

Expresses the behavior of an application with test cases written in Given When Then format.

C.

Is used to develop code guided by automated test cases.

D.

A psychological technique in which the team's behavior in agile teams is evaluated.

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Questions 17

In the newest version of payroll system number of changes were made. As a tester you got a task to perform regression and confirmation tests. Which of the following project activities are related to confirmation testing?

Options:

A.

Testing due to the application of a new version of the interface

B.

Testing that fixes resolved the defects in the search function

C.

Testing if a system still works after update of an operating system

D.

Testing to ensure the adding of a new functionalities haven't broken existing functions

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Questions 18

Which TWO of the following are benefits of continuous integration?

I. Allows earlier detection and easier root cause analysis of integration problems and conflicting changes.

II. Removes the need for manual test analysis, design and execution.

Hi. Removes the dependency on automated regression packs when integrating larger systems, or components.

iv. Gives the development team regular feedback on whether the code is working.

Select the correct answer:

Options:

A.

i and iv

B.

i and ii

C.

i and iii

D.

iii and iv

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Questions 19

A company runs a pilot project for evaluation of a test automation tool. Which of the following is NOT a valid object of this pilot project?

Options:

A.

Get familiar with the functionality and options of the tool

B.

Check haw the tool fits to the existing test processes

C.

Train all testers on using the tool

D.

Decide upon standards for tool implementation

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Questions 20

Which of the following statements about white-box testing is FALSE?

Options:

A.

Static testing can benefit from using code-related white-box test techniques during code reviews.

B.

White-box testing allows suggesting test cases for increasing coverage levels which are based on objective measures

C.

Achieving full code coverage for a component or a system ensures that it has been fully tested

D.

Black-box testing can benefit from using code-related white-box test techniques to increase confidence in the code.

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Questions 21

Confirmation testing is performed after:

Options:

A.

a defect is fixed and after other tests do not find any side-effect introduced in the software as a result of such fix

B.

a failed test, and aims to run that test again to confirm that the same behavior still occurs and thus appears to be reproducible

C.

the execution of an automated regression test suite to confirm the absence of false positives in the test results

D.

a defect is fixed, and if such testing is successful then the regression tests that are relevant for such fix can be executed

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Questions 22

Which of the following statements about statement coverage is TRUE?

Options:

A.

Achieving 90% statement coverage ensures that 90% branch coverage is achieved.

B.

Achieving 100% statement coverage ensures that no variable within the code has been used without being initialised.

C.

Achieving 100% statement coverage ensures that 100% branch coverage is achieved

D.

Achieving 80% statement coverage ensures that 80% of all executable statements within the code have been exercised.

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Questions 23

Which of the following statements regarding inspection is NOT true?

Options:

A.

An inspection may be led by a trained moderator who shall not be the author.

B.

The main purpose of an inspection is to find solutions to the problems.

C.

An inspection can be performed by peers.

D.

An inspection shall follow a formal process based on rules and checklists with entry and exit criteria

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Questions 24

Which of the following activities does NOT belong to a typical technical review?

Options:

A.

Pre-meeting preparation by reviewers

B.

Using checklists during the meeting

C.

Inviting end-users to the meeting

D.

Preparation of a review report

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Questions 25

Software was found lo take much more time than the stated requirement of less than one second to save a file. Upon investigation it was found that there was an unnecessary check inside a loop which was slowing down the file-save operation. The software not being able to meet the desired response time is an example of

Options:

A.

It is not a defect

B.

Defect

C.

Error

D.

Failure

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Questions 26

Which of the following statements about static testing and dynamic testing is true?

Options:

A.

Unlike dynamic testing, which can be also performed manually, static testing cannot be performed without specialized tools

B.

Static testing is usually much less cost-effective than dynamic testing

C.

Unlike dynamic testing, which focuses on detecting potential defects, static testing focuses on detecting failures which may be due to actual defects

D.

Both static testing and dynamic testing can be used to highlight issues associated with non-functional characteristics

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Questions 27

The fact that defects are usually not evenly distributed among the various modules that make up a software application, but rather their distribution tend to reflect the Pareto principle:

Options:

A.

is a false myth

B.

is expressed by the testing principle referred to as Tests wear out'

C.

is expressed by the testing principle referred to as 'Defects cluster together'

D.

is expressed by the testing principle referred to as 'Bug prediction'

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Questions 28

Which of the following BEST describes a test summary report for executive-level employees

Options:

A.

The report is detailed and includes a status summary of defects by priority or budget

B.

The report is detailed and includes specific information on defects and trends

C.

The report is high-level and includes a status summary of defects by priority or budget

D.

The report is high-level and includes specific information on defects and trends

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Questions 29

Which of the following is a function of a dynamic analysis tool?

Options:

A.

Provide support for traceability of tests, test results and incidents to source documents

B.

Monitor the allocation, use and de-allocation of memory during run-time of a program

C.

Execute programs step-by-step in order to reproduce failures and find corresponding defects

D.

Provide support for release of baselines consisting of configuration items

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Questions 30

A test manager decided to skip static testing since he believes bugs can be found easily by doing dynamic testing. Was this decision right or wrong?

Options:

A.

The decision was wrong. Ensuring quality mandates that static testing is performed after performing the dynamic testing.

B.

The decision was right. Static testing is usually redundant if a product is planned to go through a full-cycle of dynamic testing.

C.

The decision was right. Most of the bugs are easier to identify during the dynamic testing.

D.

The decision was wrong. Static testing can find defects early in the development process, reducing the overall cost of testing and development

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Questions 31

Which of the following characterizations applies to a test tool used for the analysis of a developer's code prior to its execution?

Options:

A.

Tool support for test design and implementation.

B.

Tool support for static testing.

C.

Tool support for test execution and logging.

D.

Tool support for performance measurement and dynamic analysis.

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Questions 32

Which of the following BEST describes checklist-based testing?

Options:

A.

Checklist-based testing includes formal tests from detailed lists of test conditions, allowing much repeatability

B.

Checklist-based testing may involve a list of tests based on what is important to the user as well as an understanding of why and how software fails

C.

Checklist-based testing, while popular, provides little consistency and few guidelines concerning test case development

D.

Checklist-based testing is restricted to non-functional testing, including usability, performance, and security test

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Questions 33

Which of the following activities are part of test planning?

I) Setting the entry and exit criteria

II) Determining the validity of bug reports

III) Determining the number of resources required

IV) Determining the expected result for test cases

Options:

A.

I. IV

B.

I. III

C.

I, III, IV

D.

I, II, IV

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Questions 34

Which of the following is the BEST reason for selecting a particular type of software development lifecycle model?

Options:

A.

The project manager's preference

B.

Tester skill level with the software development lifecycle model

C.

The project team's overall familiarity with the model

D.

The type of product being developed

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Questions 35

Which statement best describes the key difference between a mindset for test activities and a mindset for development activities?

Options:

A.

A tester possesses professional pessimism while a developer is concerned with validating the product

B.

A tester is concerned with finding defects while a developer is interested in designing solutions

C.

A tester is interested in building solutions while a developer is concerned with verifying the product

D.

A tester is concerned with verifying the product while a developer possesses professional pessimism

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Questions 36

Which of the following statements about estimation of the test effort is WRONG?

Options:

A.

Once the test effort is estimated, resources can be identified and a schedule can be drawn up.

B.

Effort estimate can be inaccurate because the quality of the product under tests is not known.

C.

Effort estimate depends on the budget of the project.

D.

Experience based estimation is one of the estimation techniques.

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Questions 37

A bank offers a savings account with various interest rates based on the current balance in the account. The balance ranges and respective interest rates are:

Up to $100.00 =2%

$100.01 to $500.00 = 4%

$500.01 to $1,000.00 = 5%

Above $1,000.00 = 7%

Using two-point boundary value analysis, which of the following sets of test inputs provides the relatively highest level of boundary coverage?

Options:

A.

$5.00.$100.00,$499.99,$1,000.00,$1,000.01

B.

$100.00. $100.01,$100.02,$500.00,$999.99

C.

$100.00, $500.00,$1,000.00,$1,000.01

D.

$5.00.$100.00,$500.00,$1,000.01

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Questions 38

Which of the following software development models BEST exemplifies a model that does NOT support the principle of early testing?

Options:

A.

The iterative development model

B.

The V-model

C.

The Waterfall model

D.

The incremental development model

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Questions 39

Which of the following is NOT an objective of testing?

Options:

A.

Finding defects

B.

Providing information for decision-making

C.

Gaining confidence about the level of quality of the software

D.

Analyzing and removing the cause of failures

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Questions 40

A system has a self-diagnostics module that starts executing after the system is reset. The diagnostics are running 12 different tests on the systems memory hardware. The following is one of the requirements set for the diagnostics module:

'The time taking the diagnostics tests to execute shall be less than 2 seconds' Which of the following is a failure related to the specified requirement?

Options:

A.

The diagnostic tests fail to start after a system reset

B.

The diagnostic tests take too much time to execute

C.

The diagnostic tests that measure the speed of the memory, fail

D.

The diagnostic tests fail due to incorrect implementation of the test code

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Questions 41

Which of the following statements is TRUE'?

Options:

A.

Unlike functional testing, non-fundional testing can only be applied to conventional systems, not artificial intelligence-based system.

B.

Functional testing focuses on what the system is supposed to do, while white-box testing focuses on how well the system does what it is supposed to do

C.

Functional testing can be applied to all test levels, while non-functional testing can be applied only to system and acceptance test levels.

D.

Black-box test techniques and experience-based test techniques may be applicable to both functional testing and non-functional testing

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Questions 42

Which of the following statements about independent testing is WRONG?

Options:

A.

Independent testing is necessary because developers don't know any testing.

B.

Independent testing is best suited for the system test level.

C.

A certain degree of independence makes the tester more effective at finding defects.

D.

Independent test teams may find other types of detects than developers who are familiar with the system's structure.

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Questions 43

Why it is essential that defects found in a review be reported objectively?

Options:

A.

In order to facilitate easy entry of detected defects in a OTS (Defect Tracking System)

B.

In order to allow the author of reviewed work product(S) to take the feedback positively as an effort at improving the product (S) and not as a personal assault

C.

In order to allow the review moderator to easily understand them, and assign them to the right developer for fixing

D.

In order to allow augmentation of existing checklists used for reviewing the work product (S)

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Questions 44

A team's test strategy was to invest equal effort in testing each of a system's modules. After running one test cycle, it turned out that most of the critical bugs were detected in one of the system's modules.

Which testing principal suggests a change to the current test strategy for the next test cycle?

Options:

A.

Pesticide Paradox

B.

Early testing

C.

Absence-of-errors fallacy

D.

Defect clustering

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Questions 45

Which of the following statements about the value of maintaining traceability between the test basis and test work products is not true?

Options:

A.

Traceability can be useful for assessing the impact of a change to a test basis item on the corresponding tests

B.

Traceability can be useful for determining how many test basis items are covered by the corresponding tests

C.

Traceability can be useful for determining the most suitable test techniques to be used in a testing project

D.

Traceability can be useful to support the needs required by the auditing of testing

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Questions 46

Which of the following statements is true?

Options:

A.

A defect does not always produce a failure, while a bug always produces a failure

B.

A defect may cause a failure which, when occurring, always causes an error

C.

Failures can be caused by defects, but also by environmental conditions

D.

Bugs are defects found during component testing, while failures are defects found at higher test levels

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Questions 47

Which type of software development product can undergo static testing?

Options:

A.

Any software development product can undergo static testing, including requirements specifications, design specifications and code.

B.

Static tests should be performed on the installation and user guide documents as these documents are used by the end user.

C.

Static testing is done only on the code as part of the "code review" sessions Other documents are reviewed, but not by static testing.

D.

Static testing is done only on the requirements You need to execute the software in order to find defects in the code.

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Questions 48

A program got 100% decision coverage in a test. Which of the following statements is then guaranteed to be true?

Options:

A.

Every executable statement Is covered.

B.

Every output equivalence class has been tested.

C.

Every input equivalence class has been tested.

D.

The "dead" code has not been covered.

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Questions 49

Which of the following is a test-first approach, where tests that express a shared understanding from stakeholders of how the application is expected to work, are first written in business-readable language (following the Given/When/Then format), and then made executable to drive development?

Options:

A.

Test-Driven Development (TDD)

B.

Acceptance Test-Driven Development (ATDD)

C.

Behavior-Driven Development (BDD)

D.

Domain-Driven Design (DDD)

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Questions 50

A software application incorrectly provided customers discounts of 50% off their total purchases if the purchases exceeded S100. It was discovered through an audit that the discount should have been only 5% off these purchases. A root cause analysis uncovered that the requirements Incorrectly stated 50% instead of 5% in this scenario.

Which of the following MOST accurately reflects this scenario?

Options:

A.

The audit finding Is the root cause, the incorrect calculation of 50% Is the defect, and the Incorrect requirement Is the effect

B.

The incorrect customer discount is the effect and the reason for the requirement error is the root cause

C.

The incorrect discount is the root cause, requiring a root cause analysis which led to investigating the software code, design, and requirements

D.

A defect in the code is determined to be the root cause of the incorrect calculation

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Questions 51

A system has valid input numbers ranging between 1000 and 99999 (both inclusive). Which of the following inputs are a result of designing tests for all valid equivalence classes and their boundaries?

Options:

A.

999.1000.23232.99999.100000

B.

999.1000.50000.100000.100001

C.

999.100000

D.

1000,50000,99999

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Questions 52

Which of the following statements describes regression testing?

I. Retesting of a fixed defect

II. Testing of an already tested program

III. Testing of new functionality in a program

IV. Regression testing applies only to functional testing

V Tests that do not nave to be repeatable, because They are only used once

Options:

A.

II, IV, V

B.

I, III, IV

C.

II

D.

I, IV

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Questions 53

STION NO: 105

A requirement specifies that a certain identifier (ID) must be between 5 and 10 characters long, must contain only alphanumenc characters, and its first character must be a letter As a tester, you want to apply one-dimensional equivalence partitioning to test this ID. This means that you have to apply equivalence partitioning individually: to the length of the ID, the type of characters contained within the ID, and the type of the first character of the ID. What is the number of partitions to cover?

Options:

A.

7.

B.

6.

C.

5.

D.

3.

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Questions 54

Manager responsibilities in formal review includes ad except one of the following:

Options:

A.

Planning the review

B.

Determines if the review objectives have been met

C.

Decide on the execution of reviews

D.

Allocate time for review

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Questions 55

Consider the following statements about risk-based testing.

I) Risk-based testing has the objective to reduce the level of protect risks.

II) Tests should be prioritized to find tie critical detects as early as possible.

III) Non-testing activities may also help to reduce risk

IV) Risks have to be reassessed on a regular basis.

V) The project stakeholders can give useful input to determine the risks

Options:

A.

I III IV and V are true. II is false.

B.

II, III IV and V are correct. I is false.

C.

C. I, II and IV are true. III and V are false.

D.

II, Ill and V are true. 1 ants Iv are false.

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Questions 56

Which of the following statements BEST describes how test cases are derived from a use case?

Options:

A.

Test cases are derived based on non-functional requirements such as usability

B.

Test cases are created using white-box test techniques to execute scenarios of use cases

C.

Test cases are derived based on pair testing between a user and a tester to find defects

D.

Test cases are designed to cover various user behaviors, including basic, exceptional or alternative and error behaviors associated with human users or systems

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Questions 57

While repotting a defect, which attribute indicates the degree of impact that the defect has on the system?

Options:

A.

Priority

B.

Severity

C.

Status

D.

Description

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Questions 58

During iteration planning, a scrum team uses an estimation technique called planning poker to estimate the effort required to deliver a critical user story. In advance of the estimation session, the team agreed on some ground rules to limit the number of poker rounds and save time.

The team agreed on the following:

1. They will use the following progression for estimation: Extra-small, Small, Medium, Large, Extra-large, and Extra-extra-large.

2. If estimation values differ significantly, the highest score will be used for estimation purposes.

The result of the first round of planning poker:

Team MemberEstimation

BusinessLarge

DevelopmentExtra-extra-large

TestingExtra-extra-large

Which of the following options best represent the team’s next actions?

Options:

A.

The fact that all estimations are high indicate that the user story is not well understood or should be broken down into multiple smaller stories.

B.

The pre-agreed rules state that the highest score should be used for estimation, resulting in the user story being categorised as Extra-extra-large.

C.

Since the business representative is likely to have the most informed view of the requirement, the user story is categorised as a Large.

D.

the team discusses the differences in the estimates and repeats the poker round until an agreemet is reached.

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Questions 59

Which of the following is a typical potential risk of using test automation tools?

Options:

A.

Reduced feedback times regarding software quality compared to manual testing.

B.

Reduced test execution limes compared to manual testing.

C.

Reduced repeatability and consistency of tests compared to manual testing

D.

Underestimation of effort required to maintain test scripts.

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Questions 60

A program is used to control a manufacturing line (turn machines on and off. start and stop conveyer belts, add raw materials to the flow. etc.). Not all actions are possible at all times. For example, there are certain manufacturing stages that cannot be stopped - unless there is an emergency. A tester attempts to evaluate if all such cases (where a specific action is not allowed) are covered by the tests.

Which coverage metric will provide the needed information for this analysis?

Options:

A.

Code coverage

B.

Data flow coverage

C.

Statement coverage

D.

Branch Coverage

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Questions 61

Given the following examples of entry and exit criteria:

1.A defined level of code coverage has been achieved

2.The test automation tool has been installed and properly configured

3.The number of unresolved defects is within the predefined limit

4.The performance test environment has been set-up and is available

5.The user stories have proper acceptance criteria defined

6.The testing budget has been spent and the project sponsor bears the risk of not testing any further

Which of the following BEST categorizes them as entry and exit criteria:

Options:

A.

Entry criteria - 2, 4, 5 Entry criteria -1, 3, 4

B.

Entry criteria - 2, 4 Entry criteria - 2, 4, 5, 6

C.

Exit criteria -1,3,6 Exit criteria - 2, 5. 6

D.

Exit criteria -1,3,56 Exit criteria -1,3

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Questions 62

Who of the following has the best knowledge to decide what tests in a test project should be automated?

Options:

A.

The developer

B.

The customer

C.

The development manager

D.

The test leader

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Questions 63

The four test levels used in ISTQB syllabus are:

1. Component (unit) testing

2. Integration testing

3. System testing

4. Acceptance testing

An organization wants to do away with integration testing but otherwise follow V-model. Which of the following statements is correct?

Options:

A.

It is allowed as organizations can decide on men test levels to do depending on the context of the system under test

B.

It is allowed because integration testing is not an important test level arc! can be dispensed with.

C.

It is not allowed because integration testing is a very important test level and ignoring i: means definite poor product quality

D.

It is not allowed as organizations can't change the test levels as these are chosen on the basis of the SDLC (software development life cycle) model

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Questions 64

Which ONE of the following statements about state transition testing is correct?

Options:

A.

The state transition diagram explicitly shows all invalid transitions.

B.

The size of the state table depends on the number of possible transitions between the states

C.

Usually it is not possible to create tests to cover ell transitions and all stales

D.

All transitions between states are explicitly shown in the state table.

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Questions 65

Which of the following is true about Oracles?

Options:

A.

Sometimes old version of a product can be used as an Oracle

B.

Oracles help in reproducing the irreproducible bugs

C.

Oracles are derived from the design

D.

Oracles can be generated automatically using data generators

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Questions 66

Which of the following does MOT describe a reason why testing is necessary?

Options:

A.

The customer decided that 100% branch coverage shall be achieved

B.

The acquisition of test automation tools was based on the assumption that it will be used m all projects

C.

For avionics and pharmaceutical systems software testing is mandated by standards

D.

The risks associated with delivering the system are far higher than the cost of testing

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Questions 67

ON NO: 94

Which ONE of the following statements does NOT describe how testing contributes to higher quality?

Options:

A.

Properly designed tests that pass reduce the level of risk in a system.

B.

The testing of software demonstrates the absence of defects.

C.

Software testing identifies defects, which can be used to improve development activities.

D.

Performing a review of the requirement specifications before implementing the system can enhance quality.

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Questions 68

Which sequence of stated in the answer choices is correct in accordance with the following figure depicting the life-cycle of a defect?

Options:

A.

S0->S1->S2->S3->S5->S1

B.

S0->S1->S2->S3->S5->S1->S2->S3

C.

S0->S1->S2~>S3->S4

D.

S0->S1 ->S2->S3->S5->S3->S4

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Questions 69

Which test approach will best fit a new project, with little documentation and high probability for bugs?

Options:

A.

Exploratory testing

B.

Requirements based testing

C.

Metric based approach

D.

Regression testing

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Questions 70

Which of the following statements about TDD, BDD and ATDD is TRUE?

Options:

A.

Refactonng is a practice that is an integral part of TDD and is applied both to tests and to code wntten to satisfy those tests.

B.

ATDD is a black-box test design technique that is applicable exclusively at acceptance test level.

C.

BDD is a developer practice where business stakeholders are not usually involved as the tests are directly written at unit/component test level.

D.

ATDD is the practice of running the automated acceptance tests as part of a continuous integration process.

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Questions 71

Given the following state model of sales order software:

SEE ATTACHMENT

Which of the following sequences of tran-sitions provides the highest level of tran-sition coverage for the model (assuming you can start in any state)?

Options:

A.

IN PRODUCTION -> CANCELLED -> PLACED -> IN PRODUCTION -> CANCELLED -> PLACED

B.

IN PRODUCTION -> SHIPPED -> INVOICED -> CANCELLED -> PLACED -> IN PRODUCTION

C.

PLACED -> IN PRODUCTION -> SHIPPED -> CANCELLED -> PLACED

D.

PLACED -> CANCELLED -> PLACED -> CANCELLED -> PLACED -> IN PRODUCTION -> CANCELLED

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Questions 72

A virtual service emulating a real third-party service and the automated test scripts (aimed at testing the system under test) that interact with that service, are test work products that are typically created during:

Options:

A.

Test monitoring and control

B.

Test implementation

C.

Test design

D.

Test analysis

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Questions 73

NO: 140

Select which of the following statements describe the key principles of software testing?

i. Testing shows the presence of defects, not their absence.

ii. Testing everything Is possible.

iii. Early testing Is more expensive and is a waste of time.

iv. Defects cluster together.

v. Testing is context dependent.

vi. Beware of the pesticide paradox.

vii. Absence of errors is a fallacy.

Select the correct answer:

Options:

A.

i, iv, v, vi and vii

B.

I, ii, v. vi and vii

C.

iii. iv, v. vi and vii

D.

ii, iii, iv, v and vi

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Questions 74

Which of the following statements about test reports are TRUE?

I Test reports shall be approved by the test team.

II. Test reports shall give stakeholders information as basis for decisions.

Ill Test reports shall summarize what happened through a period of testing.

IV. Test reports shall be approved by the development team, the test team and the customer

V. Test reports shall include information about remaining risks.

Options:

A.

II, III, V

B.

I, II, IV

C.

I, III, v

D.

II, III, IV

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Questions 75

Which of the following are the phases of the ISTQB fundamental test process?

Options:

A.

Test planning and control, Test analysis and design, Test implementation and execution, Evaluating ex t criteria and reporting. Test closure activities

B.

Test planning, Test analysis and design. Test implementation and control. Checking test coverage and reporting, Test closure activities

C.

Test planning and control, Test specification and design. Test implementation and execution, Evaluating test coverage and reporting, Retesting and regression testing, Test closure activities

D.

Test planning. Test specification and design. Test implementation and execution. Evaluating exit criteria and reporting. Retesting and test closure activities

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Questions 76

You need to test the login page of a web site. The page contains fields for user name and password. Which test design techniques are most appropriate for this case?

Options:

A.

Decision table testing, state transition testing.

B.

Equivalence partitioning, Boundary value analysis.

C.

Exploratory testing, statement coverage.

D.

Decision coverage, fault attack.

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Questions 77

A software system checks age in order to determine which welcome screen to display. Age groups are:

Group I: 0-12

Group II; 13-18

Group III: over 18

Which of the below represent boundary values?

Options:

A.

(-1.0.12.13.18,19)

B.

(-1.0,11.12.13,14,18.19)

C.

(0.12.13.18.19)

D.

(4.5.15.20)

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Questions 78

Which of the following statements about traceability is FALSE?

Options:

A.

Traceability between test basis items and the test cases designed to cover them, makes it possible to determine which test basis items have been covered by the executed test cases.

B.

Traceability between test basis items and the test cases designed to cover them, enables experience-based test techniques to be applied

C.

Traceability between test basis items and the test cases designed to cover them, enables identification of which test cases will be affected by changes to the test basis items.

D.

Traceability can be established and maintained through all the test documentation for a given test level, such as from test conditions through test cases to test scripts.

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Questions 79

Which of the following BEST defines risk level?

Options:

A.

Risk level is determined by calculating the absolute value of the sum of all potential issues that may occur on the project

B.

Risk level is calculated by adding the probabilities of all planned risks to a project

C.

Risk level is calculated by dividing the sum of all known risks by the sum of all unknown risks

D.

Risk level is determined by the likelihood of an event happening and the impact or harm from that event

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Questions 80

During system testing phase of a word processor, a tester finds that on opening a file from a particular set of files, which are part of a critical workflow, the word processor crashes. Which of the following is the next step the tester should take poor to recording the deviation?

Options:

A.

Try to recreate the incident before reporting

B.

Try to identify the code fragment causing the problem

C.

Send an email to the developer and not report the bug

D.

Report the incident as is without any further action

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Questions 81

Which of the following is MOST likely to be an example of a PROJECT risk?

Options:

A.

A computation is not always performed correctly in some situations

B.

A system architecture may not support some non-functional requirements

C.

Team members' skills may not be sufficient for the assigned work

D.

Specific modules do not adequately meet their intended functions according to the user

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Questions 82

Which of the following statements refers to a good testing practice that applies to all software development lifecycles?

Options:

A.

Each test level should have its own specific test objectives that should be consistent with the software development lifecycle phase or type of activities it addresses.

B.

Test analysis and design for any test levels should begin as soon as coding is complete, and all system components are available for testing

C.

The most efficient and effective method of conveying information to and within a development team is face-to-face conversation.

D.

All the tests should be automated and run as part of the continuous integration process with every software change

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Questions 83

Which of the following CORRECTLY matches the roles and responsibilities in a formal review?

Options:

A.

Facilitator - Fixes defects in the work product under review

B.

Scribe - Collates potential defects found during the individual review activity

C.

Review Leader - Creates the work product under review

D.

Author - Identify potential defects in the work product under review

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Questions 84

Which of the following statements is true?

Options:

A.

Experience-based test techniques rely on the experience of testers to identify the root causes of defects found by black-box test techniques

B.

Some of the most common test basis used by white-box test techniques include user stories, use cases and business processes

C.

Experience-based test techniques are often useful to detect hidden defects that have not been targeted by black-box test techniques

D.

The primary goal of experience-based test techniques is to design test cases that can be easily automated using a GUI-based test automation tool

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Questions 85

A mid-size software product development company has analyzed data related to defects detected in its product and found out that detects fixed in earlier builds are getting re-opened after a few months.

The company management now seeks your advice in order to reverse this trend and prevent re-opening of defects fixed earlier.

What would be your FIRST recommendation to the company?

Options:

A.

Automate existing test suits so that lesser time is spent on execution of each test, and more tests can be executed m the available time thus leading to a lower probability of defects slipping by

B.

Verify existing regression test suite are adequate, and augment it, if required, in order to ensure that defects fixed earlier get re-tested in each subsequent build

C.

Analyze the product modules containing maximum defects, and get them thoroughly tested and defects fixed as a one-time activity

D.

If required, tram the teams responsible for development and testing of the modules containing maximum number of defects, and if this does not help, replace them with more knowledgeable people

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Questions 86

Which review type, also known as a “buddy check”, is commonly used in Agile development?

Options:

A.

Inspection.

B.

Walkthrough.

C.

Technical review.

D.

Informal review.

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Exam Code: ISTQB-CTFL
Exam Name: ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level (CTFL) v4.0
Last Update: Nov 24, 2024
Questions: 288
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