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156-215.81 Check Point Certified Security Administrator R81.20 CCSA (156-215.81.20) Questions and Answers

Questions 4

Fill in the blank RADIUS Accounting gets_____data from requests generated by the accounting client

Options:

A.

Location

B.

Payload

C.

Destination

D.

Identity

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Questions 5

Which of the following is used to extract state related information from packets and store that information in state tables?

Options:

A.

STATE Engine

B.

TRACK Engine

C.

RECORD Engine

D.

INSPECT Engine

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Questions 6

Fill in the blank: Permanent VPN tunnels can be set on all tunnels in the community, on all tunnels for specific gateways, or__________.

Options:

A.

On all satellite gateway to satellite gateway tunnels

B.

On specific tunnels for specific gateways

C.

On specific tunnels in the community

D.

On specific satellite gateway to central gateway tunnels

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Questions 7

By default, which port is used to connect to the GAiA Portal?

Options:

A.

4434

B.

80

C.

8080

D.

443

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Questions 8

When configuring Anti-Spoofing, which tracking options can an Administrator select?

Options:

A.

Log, Alert, None

B.

Log, Allow Packets, Email

C.

Drop Packet, Alert, None

D.

Log, Send SNMP Trap, Email

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Questions 9

Consider the Global Properties following settings:

The selected option “Accept Domain Name over UDP (Queries)” means:

Options:

A.

UDP Queries will be accepted by the traffic allowed only through interfaces with external anti-spoofing topology and this will be done before first explicit rule written by Administrator in a Security Policy.

B.

All UDP Queries will be accepted by the traffic allowed through all interfaces and this will be done before first explicit rule written by Administrator in a Security Policy.

C.

No UDP Queries will be accepted by the traffic allowed through all interfaces and this will be done before first explicit rule written by Administrator in a Security Policy.

D.

All UDP Queries will be accepted by the traffic allowed by first explicit rule written by Administrator in a Security Policy.

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Questions 10

Which information is included in the “Extended Log” tracking option, but is not included in the “Log” tracking option?

Options:

A.

file attributes

B.

application information

C.

destination port

D.

data type information

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Questions 11

Fill in the blank: When a policy package is installed, ________ are also distributed to the target installation Security Gateways.

Options:

A.

User and objects databases

B.

Network databases

C.

SmartConsole databases

D.

User databases

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Questions 12

When connected to the Check Point R80 Management Server using the SmartConsole the first administrator to connect has a lock on:

Options:

A.

Only the objects being modified in the Management Database and other administrators can connect to make changes using a special session as long as they all connect from the same LAN network.

B.

The entire Management Database and other administrators can connect to make changes only if the first administrator switches to Read-only.

C.

The entire Management Database and all sessions and other administrators can connect only as Read-only.

D.

Only the objects being modified in his session of the Management Database and other administrators can connect to make changes using different sessions.

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Questions 13

Which of the following are types of VPN communities?

Options:

A.

Pentagon, star, and combination

B.

Star, octagon, and combination

C.

Combined and star

D.

Meshed, star, and combination

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Questions 14

What is the purpose of a Clean-up Rule?

Options:

A.

Clean-up Rules do not server any purpose.

B.

Provide a metric for determining unnecessary rules.

C.

To drop any traffic that is not explicitly allowed.

D.

Used to better optimize a policy.

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Questions 15

Name one limitation of using Security Zones in the network?

Options:

A.

Security zones will not work in Automatic NAT rules

B.

Security zone will not work in Manual NAT rules

C.

Security zones will not work in firewall policy layer

D.

Security zones cannot be used in network topology

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Questions 16

An administrator wishes to enable Identity Awareness on the Check Point firewalls. However they allow users to use company issued or personal laptops. Since the administrator cannot manage the personal laptops, which of the following methods would BEST suit this company?

Options:

A.

AD Query

B.

Browser-Based Authentication

C.

Identity Agents

D.

Terminal Servers Agent

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Questions 17

You want to verify if there are unsaved changes in GAiA that will be lost with a reboot. What command can be used?

Options:

A.

show unsaved

B.

show save-state

C.

show configuration diff

D.

show config-state

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Questions 18

True or False: In a Distributed Environment, a Central License can be installed via CLI on a Security Gateway

Options:

A.

True, CLI is the prefer method for Licensing

B.

False, Central License are handled via Security Management Server

C.

False, Central License are installed via Gaia on Security Gateways

D.

True, Central License can be installed with CPLIC command on a Security Gateway

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Questions 19

In Logging and Monitoring, the tracking options are Log, Detailed Log and Extended Log. Which of the following options can you add to each Log, Detailed Log and Extended Log?

Options:

A.

Accounting

B.

Suppression

C.

Accounting/Suppression

D.

Accounting/Extended

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Questions 20

How would you determine the software version from the CLI?

Options:

A.

fw ver

B.

fw stat

C.

fw monitor

D.

cpinfo

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Questions 21

What Check Point technologies deny or permit network traffic?

Options:

A.

Application Control, DLP

B.

Packet Filtering, Stateful Inspection, Application Layer Firewall.

C.

ACL, SandBlast, MPT

D.

IPS, Mobile Threat Protection

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Questions 22

Due to high CPU workload on the Security Gateway, the security administrator decided to purchase a new multicore CPU to replace the existing single core CPU. After installation, is the administrator required to perform any additional tasks?

Options:

A.

Go to clash-Run cpstop | Run cpstart

B.

Go to clash-Run cpconfig | Configure CoreXL to make use of the additional Cores | Exit cpconfig | Reboot Security Gateway

C.

Administrator does not need to perform any task. Check Point will make use of the newly installed CPU and Cores

D.

Go to clash-Run cpconfig | Configure CoreXL to make use of the additional Cores | Exit cpconfig | Reboot Security Gateway | Install Security Policy

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Questions 23

Identity Awareness allows the Security Administrator to configure network access based on which of the following?

Options:

A.

Name of the application, identity of the user, and identity of the machine

B.

Identity of the machine, username, and certificate

C.

Network location, identity of a user, and identity of a machine

D.

Browser-Based Authentication, identity of a user, and network location

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Questions 24

Fill in the blank: Authentication rules are defined for ____________.

Options:

A.

User groups

B.

Users using UserCheck

C.

Individual users

D.

All users in the database

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Questions 25

Which tool allows you to monitor the top bandwidth on smart console?

Options:

A.

Logs & Monitoring

B.

Smart Event

C.

Gateways & Severs Tab

D.

SmartView Monitor

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Questions 26

What protocol is specifically used for clustered environments?

Options:

A.

Clustered Protocol

B.

Synchronized Cluster Protocol

C.

Control Cluster Protocol

D.

Cluster Control Protocol

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Questions 27

Which Threat Prevention Software Blade provides comprehensive protection against malicious and unwanted network traffic, focusing on application and server vulnerabilities?

Options:

A.

IPS

B.

Anti-Virus

C.

Anti-Spam

D.

Anti-bot

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Questions 28

Which of the following statements about Site-to-Site VPN Domain-based is NOT true?

    Route-based— The Security Gateways will have a Virtual Tunnel Interface (VTI) for each VPN Tunnel with a peer VPN Gateway. The Routing Table can have routes to forward traffic to these VTls. Any traffic routed through a VTI is automatically identified as VPN Traffic and is passed through the VPN Tunnel associated with the VTI.

Options:

A.

Domain-based— VPN domains are pre-defined for all VPN Gateways. A VPN domain is a service or user that can send or receive VPN traffic through a VPN Gateway.

B.

Domain-based— VPN domains are pre-defined for all VPN Gateways. A VPN domain is a host or network that can send or receive VPN traffic through a VPN Gateway.

C.

Domain-based— VPN domains are pre-defined for all VPN Gateways. When the Security Gateway encounters traffic originating from one VPN Domain with the destination to a VPN Domain of another VPN Gateway, that traffic is identified as VPN traffic and is sent through the VPN Tunnel between the two Gateways.

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Questions 29

The Online Activation method is available for Check Point manufactured appliances. How does the administrator use the Online Activation method?

Options:

A.

The SmartLicensing GUI tool must be launched from the SmartConsole for the Online Activation tool to start automatically.

B.

No action is required if the firewall has internet access and a DNS server to resolve domain names.

C.

Using the Gaia First Time Configuration Wizard, the appliance connects to the Check Point User Center and downloads all necessary licenses and contracts.

D.

The cpinfo command must be run on the firewall with the switch -online-license-activation.

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Questions 30

Which option, when applied to a rule, allows all encrypted and non-VPN traffic that matches the rule?

Options:

A.

All Site-to-Site VPN Communities

B.

Accept all encrypted traffic

C.

All Connections (Clear or Encrypted)

D.

Specific VPN Communities

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Questions 31

Customer’s R80 management server needs to be upgraded to R80.10. What is the best upgrade method when the management server is not connected to the Internet?

Options:

A.

Export R80 configuration, clean install R80.10 and import the configuration

B.

CPUSE online upgrade

C.

CPUSE offline upgrade

D.

SmartUpdate upgrade

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Questions 32

What type of NAT is a one-to-one relationship where each host is translated to a unique address?

Options:

A.

Source

B.

Static

C.

Hide

D.

Destination

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Questions 33

Session unique identifiers are passed to the web api using which http header option?

Options:

A.

X-chkp-sid

B.

Accept-Charset

C.

Proxy-Authorization

D.

Application

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Questions 34

Fill in the blanks: Gaia can be configured using _______ the ________.

Options:

A.

Command line interface; WebUI

B.

Gaia Interface; GaiaUI

C.

WebUI; Gaia Interface

D.

GaiaUI; command line interface

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Questions 35

Which encryption algorithm is the least secured?

Options:

A.

3DES

B.

AES-128

C.

DES

D.

AES-256

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Questions 36

Gaia includes Check Point Upgrade Service Engine (CPUSE), which can directly receive updates for what components?

Options:

A.

The Security Gateway (SG) and Security Management Server (SMS) software and the CPUSE engine.

B.

Licensed Check Point products for the Gala operating system and the Gaia operating system itself.

C.

The CPUSE engine and the Gaia operating system.

D.

The Gaia operating system only.

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Questions 37

Which two Identity Awareness daemons are used to support identity sharing?

Options:

A.

Policy Activation Point (PAP) and Policy Decision Point (PDP)

B.

Policy Manipulation Point (PMP) and Policy Activation Point (PAP)

C.

Policy Enforcement Point (PEP) and Policy Manipulation Point (PMP)

D.

Policy Decision Point (PDP) and Policy Enforcement Point (PEP)

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Questions 38

Which type of Endpoint Identity Agent includes packet tagging and computer authentication?

Options:

A.

Full

B.

Custom

C.

Complete

D.

Light

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Questions 39

Which Threat Prevention profile uses sanitization technology?

Options:

A.

Cloud/data Center

B.

perimeter

C.

Sandbox

D.

Guest Network

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Questions 40

In Unified SmartConsole Gateways and Servers tab you can perform the following functions EXCEPT ________.

Options:

A.

Upgrade the software version

B.

Open WebUI

C.

Open SSH

D.

Open service request with Check Point Technical Support

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Questions 41

When a Security Gateway sends its logs to an IP address other than its own, which deployment option is installed?

Options:

A.

Distributed

B.

Standalone

C.

Bridge Mode

D.

Targeted

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Questions 42

Which of the following is NOT an option to calculate the traffic direction?

Options:

A.

Incoming

B.

Internal

C.

External

D.

Outgoing

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Questions 43

Application Control/URL filtering database library is known as:

Options:

A.

Application database

B.

AppWiki

C.

Application-Forensic Database

D.

Application Library

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Questions 44

DLP and Geo Policy are examples of what type of Policy?

Options:

A.

Inspection Policies

B.

Shared Policies

C.

Unified Policies

D.

Standard Policies

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Questions 45

What are the three deployment options available for a security gateway?

Options:

A.

Standalone, Distributed, and Bridge Mode

B.

Bridge Mode, Remote, and Standalone

C.

Remote, Standalone, and Distributed

D.

Distributed, Bridge Mode, and Remote

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Questions 46

Which Check Point software blade provides Application Security and identity control?

Options:

A.

Identity Awareness

B.

Data Loss Prevention

C.

URL Filtering

D.

Application Control

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Questions 47

You have enabled "Extended Log" as a tracking option to a security rule. However, you are still not seeing any data type information. What is the MOST likely reason?

Options:

A.

Identity Awareness is not enabled.

B.

Log Trimming is enabled.

C.

Logging has disk space issues

D.

Content Awareness is not enabled.

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Questions 48

Which Check Point software blade prevents malicious files from entering a network using virus signatures and anomaly-based protections from ThreatCloud?

Options:

A.

Firewall

B.

Application Control

C.

Anti-spam and Email Security

D.

Anti-Virus

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Questions 49

Which of the following is TRUE regarding Gaia command line?

Options:

A.

Configuration changes should be done in mgmt_di and use CLISH for monitoring. Expert mode is used only for OS level tasks

B.

Configuration changes should be done in mgmt_cli and use expert-mode for OS-level tasks.

C.

Configuration changes should be done in expert-mode and CLISH is used for monitoring

D.

All configuration changes should be made in CLISH and expert-mode should be used for OS-level tasks.

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Questions 50

How are the backups stored in Check Point appliances?

Options:

A.

Saved as*.tar under /var/log/CPbackup/backups

B.

Saved as*tgz under /var/CPbackup

C.

Saved as*tar under /var/CPbackup

D.

Saved as*tgz under /var/log/CPbackup/backups

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Questions 51

Which statement describes what Identity Sharing is in Identity Awareness?

Options:

A.

Management servers can acquire and share identities with Security Gateways

B.

Users can share identities with other users

C.

Security Gateways can acquire and share identities with other Security Gateways

D.

Administrators can share identifies with other administrators

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Questions 52

Tom has connected to the Management Server remotely using SmartConsole and is in the process of making some Rule Base changes, when he suddenly loses connectivity. Connectivity is restored shortly afterward. What will happen to the changes already made?

Options:

A.

Tom will have to reboot his SmartConsole computer, clear the cache, and restore changes.

B.

Tom will have to reboot his SmartConsole computer, and access the Management cache store on that computer, which is only accessible after a reboot.

C.

Tom's changes will be lost since he lost connectivity and he will have to start again.

D.

Tom's changes will have been stored on the Management when he reconnects and he will not lose any of his work.

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Questions 53

You can see the following graphic:

What is presented on it?

Options:

A.

Properties of personal. p12 certificate file issued for user John.

B.

Shared secret properties of John’s password.

C.

VPN certificate properties of the John’s gateway.

D.

Expired. p12 certificate properties for user John.

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Questions 54

Bob and Joe both have Administrator Roles on their Gaia Platform. Bob logs in on the WebUI and then Joe logs in through CLI. Choose what BEST describes the following scenario, where Bob and Joe are both logged in:

Options:

A.

Since they both are logged in on different interfaces, they will both be able to make changes.

B.

When Joe logs in. Bob will be logged out automatically.

C.

The database will be locked by Bob and Joe will not be able to make any changes.

D.

Bob will receive a prompt that Joe has logged in.

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Questions 55

Which of the following commands is used to monitor cluster members in CLI?

Options:

A.

show cluster state

B.

show active cluster

C.

show clusters

D.

show running cluster

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Questions 56

What are the three types of UserCheck messages?

Options:

A.

inform, ask, and block

B.

block, action, and warn

C.

action, inform, and ask

D.

ask, block, and notify

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Questions 57

Secure Internal Communication (SIC) is handled by what process?

Options:

A.

CPM

B.

HTTPS

C.

FWD

D.

CPD

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Questions 58

How many users can have read/write access in Gaia Operating System at one time?

Options:

A.

One

B.

Three

C.

Two

D.

Infinite

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Questions 59

The ______ software blade package uses CPU-level and OS-level sandboxing in order to detect and block malware.

Options:

A.

Next Generation Threat Prevention

B.

Next Generation Threat Emulation

C.

Next Generation Threat Extraction

D.

Next Generation Firewall

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Questions 60

Stateful Inspection compiles and registers connections where?

Options:

A.

Connection Cache

B.

State Cache

C.

State Table

D.

Network Table

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Questions 61

The Gateway Status view in SmartConsole shows the overall status of Security Gateways and Software Blades. What does the Status Attention mean?

Options:

A.

Cannot reach the Security Gateway.

B.

The gateway and all its Software Blades are working properly.

C.

At least one Software Blade has a minor issue, but the gateway works.

D.

Cannot make SIC between the Security Management Server and the Security Gateway

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Questions 62

Which method below is NOT one of the ways to communicate using the Management API’s?

Options:

A.

Typing API commands using the “mgmt_cli” command

B.

Typing API commands from a dialog box inside the SmartConsole GUI application

C.

Typing API commands using Gaia’s secure shell (clash)19+

D.

Sending API commands over an http connection using web-services

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Questions 63

Fill in the blank: The_____is used to obtain identification and security information about network users.

Options:

A.

User index

B.

UserCheck

C.

User Directory

D.

User server

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Questions 64

A Check Point Software license consists of two components, the Software Blade and the Software Container. There are ______ types of Software Containers: ________.

Options:

A.

Two; Security Management and Endpoint Security

B.

Two; Endpoint Security and Security Gateway

C.

Three; Security Management, Security Gateway, and Endpoint Security

D.

Three; Security Gateway, Endpoint Security, and Gateway Management

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Questions 65

Where is the “Hit Count” feature enabled or disabled in SmartConsole?

Options:

A.

On the Policy Package

B.

On each Security Gateway

C.

On the Policy layer

D.

In Global Properties for the Security Management Server

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Questions 66

Which two Identity Awareness commands are used to support identity sharing?

Options:

A.

Policy Decision Point (PDP) and Policy Enforcement Point (PEP)

B.

Policy Enforcement Point (PEP) and Policy Manipulation Point (PMP)

C.

Policy Manipulation Point (PMP) and Policy Activation Point (PAP)

D.

Policy Activation Point (PAP) and Policy Decision Point (PDP)

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Questions 67

How Capsule Connect and Capsule Workspace differ?

Options:

A.

Capsule Connect provides a Layer3 VPN. Capsule Workspace provides a Desktop with usable applications

B.

Capsule Workspace can provide access to any application

C.

Capsule Connect provides Business data isolation

D.

Capsule Connect does not require an installed application at client

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Questions 68

When URL Filtering is set, what identifying data gets sent to the Check Point Online Web Service?

Options:

A.

The URL and server certificate are sent to the Check Point Online Web Service

B.

The full URL, including page data, is sent to the Check Point Online Web Service

C.

The host part of the URL is sent to the Check Point Online Web Service

D.

The URL and IP address are sent to the Check Point Online Web Service

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Questions 69

You are asked to check the status of several user-mode processes on the management server and gateway. Which of the following processes can only be seen on a Management Server?

Options:

A.

fwd

B.

fwm

C.

cpd

D.

cpwd

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Questions 70

Examine the sample Rule Base.

What will be the result of a verification of the policy from SmartConsole?

Options:

A.

No errors or Warnings

B.

Verification Error. Empty Source-List in Rule 5 (Mail Inbound)

C.

Verification Error. Rule 4 (Web Inbound) hides Rule 6 (Webmaster access)

D.

Verification Error. Rule 7 (Clean-Up Rule) hides Implicit Clean-up Rule

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Questions 71

To ensure that VMAC mode is enabled, which CLI command you should run on all cluster members? Choose the best answer.

Options:

A.

fw ctl set int fwha vmac global param enabled

B.

fw ctl get int fwha vmac global param enabled; result of command should return value 1

C.

cphaprob –a if

D.

fw ctl get int fwha_vmac_global_param_enabled; result of command should return value 1

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Questions 72

When you upload a package or license to the appropriate repository in SmartUpdate. where is the package or license stored?

Options:

A.

SmartConsole installed device

B.

Check Point user center

C.

Security Management Server

D.

Security Gateway

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Questions 73

Check Point licenses come in two forms. What are those forms?

Options:

A.

Security Gateway and Security Management.

B.

On-premise and Public Cloud

C.

Central and Local.

D.

Access Control and Threat Prevention.

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Questions 74

When a SAM rule is required on Security Gateway to quickly block suspicious connections which are not restricted by the Security Policy, what actions does the administrator need to take?

Options:

A.

SmartView Monitor should be opened and then the SAM rule/s can be applied immediately. Installing policy is not required.

B.

The policy type SAM must be added to the Policy Package and a new SAM rule must be applied. Simply Publishing the changes applies the SAM rule on the firewall.

C.

The administrator must work on the firewall CLI (for example with SSH and PuTTY) and the command 'sam block' must be used with the right parameters.

D.

The administrator should open the LOGS & MONITOR view and find the relevant log. Right clicking on the log entry will show the Create New SAM rule option.

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Questions 75

CPU-level of your Security gateway is peaking to 100% causing problems with traffic. You suspect that the problem might be the Threat Prevention settings.

The following Threat Prevention Profile has been created.

How could you tune the profile in order to lower the CPU load still maintaining security at good level? Select the BEST answer.

Options:

A.

Set High Confidence to Low and Low Confidence to Inactive.

B.

Set the Performance Impact to Medium or lower.

C.

The problem is not with the Threat Prevention Profile. Consider adding more memory to the appliance.

D.

Set the Performance Impact to Very Low Confidence to Prevent.

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Questions 76

In R80 Management, apart from using SmartConsole, objects or rules can also be modified using:

Options:

A.

3rd Party integration of CLI and API for Gateways prior to R80.

B.

A complete CLI and API interface using SSH and custom CPCode integration.

C.

3rd Party integration of CLI and API for Management prior to R80.

D.

A complete CLI and API interface for Management with 3rd Party integration.

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Questions 77

Fill in the blank: The _____ feature allows administrators to share a policy with other policy packages.

Options:

A.

Concurrent policy packages

B.

Concurrent policies

C.

Global Policies

D.

Shared policies

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Questions 78

Which key is created during Phase 2 of a site-to-site VPN?

Options:

A.

Pre-shared secret

B.

Diffie-Hellman Public Key

C.

Symmetrical IPSec key

D.

Diffie-Hellman Private Key

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Questions 79

What are valid authentication methods for mutual authenticating the VPN gateways?

Options:

A.

Pre-shared Secret and PKI Certificates

B.

PKI Certificates and Kerberos Tickets

C.

Pre-Shared Secrets and Kerberos Ticket

D.

PKI Certificates and DynamiciD OTP

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Questions 80

From SecureXL perspective, what are the tree paths of traffic flow:

Options:

A.

Initial Path; Medium Path; Accelerated Path

B.

Layer Path; Blade Path; Rule Path

C.

Firewall Path; Accept Path; Drop Path

D.

Firewall Path; Accelerated Path; Medium Path

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Questions 81

Which of the following is NOT a component of Check Point Capsule?

Options:

A.

Capsule Docs

B.

Capsule Cloud

C.

Capsule Enterprise

D.

Capsule Workspace

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Questions 82

What are the three components for Check Point Capsule?

Options:

A.

Capsule Docs, Capsule Cloud, Capsule Connect

B.

Capsule Workspace, Capsule Cloud, Capsule Connect

C.

Capsule Workspace, Capsule Docs, Capsule Connect

D.

Capsule Workspace, Capsule Docs, Capsule Cloud

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Questions 83

When logging in for the first time to a Security management Server through SmartConsole, a fingerprint is saved to the:

Options:

A.

Security Management Server’s /home/.fgpt file and is available for future SmartConsole authentications.

B.

Windows registry is available for future Security Management Server authentications.

C.

There is no memory used for saving a fingerprint anyway.

D.

SmartConsole cache is available for future Security Management Server authentications.

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Questions 84

Using R80 Smart Console, what does a “pencil icon” in a rule mean?

Options:

A.

I have changed this rule

B.

Someone else has changed this rule

C.

This rule is managed by check point’s SOC

D.

This rule can’t be changed as it’s an implied rule

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Questions 85

Fill in the blank: A(n)_____rule is created by an administrator and configured to allow or block traffic based on specified criteria.

Options:

A.

Inline

B.

Explicit

C.

Implicit drop

D.

Implicit accept

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Questions 86

What are the software components used by Autonomous Threat Prevention Profiles in R8I.20 and higher?

Options:

A.

Sandbox, ThreatCloud, Zero Phishing, Sanitization, C&C Protection, JPS, File and URL Reputation

B.

IPS, Threat Emulation and Threat Extraction

C.

Sandbox, ThreatCloud, Sanitization, C&C Protection, IPS

D.

IPS, Anti-Bot, Anti-Virus, SandBlast and Macro Extraction

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Questions 87

Which software blade does NOT accompany the Threat Prevention policy?

Options:

A.

IPS

B.

Application Control and URL Filtering

C.

Threat Emulation

D.

Anti-virus

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Questions 88

Which of the following is NOT an identity source used for Identity Awareness?

Options:

A.

Remote Access

B.

UserCheck

C.

AD Query

D.

RADIUS

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Questions 89

From the Gaia web interface, which of the following operations CANNOT be performed on a Security Management Server?

Options:

A.

Verify a Security Policy

B.

Open a terminal shell

C.

Add a static route

D.

View Security Management GUI Clients

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Questions 90

The “Hit count” feature allows tracking the number of connections that each rule matches. Will the Hit count feature work independently from logging and Track the hits even if the Track option is set to “None”?

Options:

A.

No, it will not work independently. Hit Count will be shown only for rules with Track options set as Log or alert

B.

Yes, it will work independently as long as “analyze all rules” tick box is enabled on the Security Gateway

C.

No, it will not work independently because hit count requires all rules to be logged

D.

Yes, it will work independently because when you enable Hit Count, the SMS collects the data from supported Security Gateways

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Questions 91

What is the default shell of Gaia CLI?

Options:

A.

clish

B.

Monitor

C.

Read-only

D.

Bash

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Questions 92

URL Filtering employs a technology, which educates users on web usage policy in real time. What is the name of that technology?

Options:

A.

WebCheck

B.

UserCheck

C.

Harmony Endpoint

D.

URL categorization

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Questions 93

SmartConsole provides a consolidated solution for everything that is necessary for the security of an organization, such as the following

Options:

A.

Security Policy Management and Log Analysis

B.

Security Policy Management. Log Analysis. System Health Monitoring. Multi-Domain Security Management.

C.

Security Policy Management Log Analysis and System Health Monitoring

D.

Security Policy Management. Threat Prevention rules. System Health Monitoring and Multi-Domain Security Management.

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Questions 94

Which of the following is considered to be the more secure and preferred VPN authentication method?

Options:

A.

Password

B.

Certificate

C.

MD5

D.

Pre-shared secret

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Questions 95

When a Security Gateway communicates about its status to an IP address other than its own, which deployment option was chosen?

Options:

A.

Targeted

B.

Bridge Mode

C.

Distributed

D.

Standalone

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Questions 96

Fill in the blank: To create policy for traffic to or from a particular location, use the _____________.

Options:

A.

DLP shared policy

B.

Geo policy shared policy

C.

Mobile Access software blade

D.

HTTPS inspection

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Questions 97

Which default Gaia user has full read/write access?

Options:

A.

admin

B.

superuser

C.

monitor

D.

altuser

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Questions 98

Which option will match a connection regardless of its association with a VPN community?

Options:

A.

All Site-to-Site VPN Communities

B.

Accept all encrypted traffic

C.

All Connections (Clear or Encrypted)

D.

Specific VPN Communities

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Questions 99

Which single Security Blade can be turned on to block both malicious files from being downloaded as well as block websites known to host malware?

Options:

A.

Anti-Bot

B.

None - both Anti-Virus and Anti-Bot are required for this

C.

Anti-Virus

D.

None - both URL Filtering and Anti-Virus are required for this.

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Questions 100

In SmartConsole, on which tab are Permissions and Administrators defined?

Options:

A.

Manage and Settings

B.

Logs and Monitor

C.

Security Policies

D.

Gateways and Servers

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Questions 101

Fill in the blank: An LDAP server holds one or more ______________.

Options:

A.

Server Units

B.

Administrator Units

C.

Account Units

D.

Account Servers

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Questions 102

What are the three deployment considerations for a secure network?

Options:

A.

Distributed, Bridge Mode, and Remote

B.

Bridge Mode, Remote, and Standalone

C.

Remote, Standalone, and Distributed

D.

Standalone, Distributed, and Bridge Mode

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Questions 103

Fill in the blank: Each cluster, at a minimum, should have at least ___________ interfaces.

Options:

A.

Five

B.

Two

C.

Three

D.

Four

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Questions 104

URL Filtering cannot be used to:

Options:

A.

Control Bandwidth issues

B.

Control Data Security

C.

Improve organizational security

D.

Decrease legal liability

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Questions 105

Of all the Check Point components in your network, which one changes most often and should be backed up most frequently?

Options:

A.

SmartManager

B.

SmartConsole

C.

Security Gateway

D.

Security Management Server

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Questions 106

R80 is supported by which of the following operating systems:

Options:

A.

Windows only

B.

Gaia only

C.

Gaia, SecurePlatform, and Windows

D.

SecurePlatform only

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Questions 107

In which scenario is it a valid option to transfer a license from one hardware device to another?

Options:

A.

From a 4400 Appliance to a 2200 Appliance

B.

From a 4400 Appliance to an HP Open Server

C.

From an IBM Open Server to an HP Open Server

D.

From an IBM Open Server to a 2200 Appliance

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Questions 108

A stateful inspection firewall works by registering connection data and compiling this information. Where is the information stored?

Options:

A.

In the system SMEM memory pool.

B.

In State tables.

C.

In the Sessions table.

D.

In a CSV file on the firewall hard drive located in $FWDIR/conf/.

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Questions 109

Which GUI tool can be used to view and apply Check Point licenses?

Options:

A.

cpconfig

B.

Management Command Line

C.

SmartConsole

D.

SmartUpdate

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Questions 110

Which one of the following is the preferred licensing model? Select the BEST answer

Options:

A.

Local licensing because it ties the package license to the IP-address of the gateway and has no dependency of the Security Management Server.

B.

Central licensing because it ties the package license to the IP-address of the Security Management Server and has no dependency on the gateway.

C.

Central licensing because it ties the package license to the MAC-address of the Security Management Server's Mgmt-interface and has no dependency

on the gateway.

D.

Local licensing because it ties the package license to the MAC-address of the gateway management interface and has no Security Management Server

dependency.

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Questions 111

A layer can support different combinations of blades What are the supported blades:

Options:

A.

Firewall. URLF, Content Awareness and Mobile Access

B.

Firewall (Network Access Control). Application & URL Filtering. Content Awareness and Mobile Access

C.

Firewall. NAT, Content Awareness and Mobile Access

D.

Firewall (Network Access Control). Application & URL Filtering and Content Awareness

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Questions 112

Which one of the following is TRUE?

Options:

A.

Ordered policy is a sub-policy within another policy

B.

One policy can be either inline or ordered, but not both

C.

Inline layer can be defined as a rule action

D.

Pre-R80 Gateways do not support ordered layers

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Questions 113

Which SmartConsole tab is used to monitor network and security performance?

Options:

A.

Manage & Settings

B.

Security Policies

C.

Gateway & Servers

D.

Logs & Monitor

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Questions 114

Which is a main component of the Check Point security management architecture?

Options:

A.

Identity Collector

B.

Endpoint VPN client

C.

SmartConsole

D.

Proxy Server

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Questions 115

What are two basic rules Check Point recommending for building an effective security policy?

Options:

A.

Accept Rule and Drop Rule

B.

Cleanup Rule and Stealth Rule

C.

Explicit Rule and Implied Rule

D.

NAT Rule and Reject Rule

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Questions 116

When enabling tracking on a rule, what is the default option?

Options:

A.

Accounting Log

B.

Extended Log

C.

Log

D.

Detailed Log

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Questions 117

Rugged appliances are small appliances with ruggedized hardware and like Quantum Spark appliance they use which operating system?

Options:

A.

Centos Linux

B.

Gaia embedded

C.

Gaia

D.

Red Hat Enterprise Linux version 5

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Questions 118

Which type of Check Point license is tied to the IP address of a specific Security Gateway and cannot be transferred to a gateway that has a different IP address?

Options:

A.

Formal

B.

Central

C.

Corporate

D.

Local

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Questions 119

Which option, when applied to a rule, allows traffic to VPN gateways in specific VPN communities?

Options:

A.

All Connections (Clear or Encrypted)

B.

Accept all encrypted traffic

C.

Specific VPN Communities

D.

All Site-to-Site VPN Communities

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Questions 120

Can you use the same layer in multiple policies or rulebases?

Options:

A.

Yes - a layer can be shared with multiple policies and rules.

B.

No - each layer must be unique.

C.

No - layers cannot be shared or reused, but an identical one can be created.

D.

Yes - but it must be copied and pasted with a different name.

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Questions 121

Which icon in the WebUI indicates that read/write access is enabled?

Options:

A.

Eyeglasses

B.

Pencil

C.

Padlock

D.

Book

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Questions 122

If there are two administrators logged in at the same time to the SmartConsole, and there are objects locked for editing, what must be done to make them available to other administrators? Choose the BEST answer

Options:

A.

Save and install the Policy

B.

Delete older versions of database

C.

Revert the session.

D.

Publish or discard the session

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Questions 123

What needs to be configured if the NAT property ‘Translate destination on client side’ is not enabled in Global properties?

Options:

A.

A host route to route to the destination IP

B.

Use the file local.arp to add the ARP entries for NAT to work

C.

Nothing, the Gateway takes care of all details necessary

D.

Enabling ‘Allow bi-directional NAT’ for NAT to work correctly

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Exam Code: 156-215.81
Exam Name: Check Point Certified Security Administrator R81.20 CCSA (156-215.81.20)
Last Update: Apr 4, 2025
Questions: 411
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