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FPGEE Foreign Pharmacy Graduate Equivalency Examination Questions and Answers

Questions 4

Water used for reconstitution of an additive for a large volume parenteral should be:

Options:

A.

sterile water

B.

distilled water

C.

Bacteriostatic Water for Injection (United States Pharmacopeial standard)

D.

Water for Injection (United States Pharmacopeial standard)

E.

Sterile Water for Injection (United States Pharmacopeial standard)

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Questions 5

Physicochemical factors affecting the rate and extent of percutaneous drug absorption include:

I the partition coefficient of the drug molecule

II the presence of surfactants in the formulation

III the type of ointment base

Options:

A.

I only

B.

III only

C.

I and II only

D.

II and III only

E.

I, II and III

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Questions 6

Beriberi is caused by deficiency of which of the following vitamins?

Options:

A.

Thiamine

B.

Riboflavin

C.

Niacin

D.

Pyridoxine

E.

Folic acid

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Questions 7

Proteins are formed from:

Options:

A.

Purines

B.

Carbohydrates

C.

Amino acids

D.

Monosaccharides

E.

Nucleosides

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Questions 8

In an adequately powered, randomized controlled trial conducted over 3 years, a specific serious side effect (i.e. reduction in leukocytes) with conventional therapy is seen in 0.5% of the study sample. In patients who receive a newly discovered drug, only 0.45% experience the same side effect. Based on these results, the minimum number of patients that would have to receive the new drug for 3 years to statistically demonstrate the prevention of one episode of this side effect in at least one patient is:

Options:

A.

15.

B.

20.

C.

150.

D.

200.

E.

2000.

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Questions 9

In which of the following organs or tissues is the action of acetylcholine NOT described as "nicotinic"?

I Motor endplates of skeletal muscle

II Celiac ganglia

III Circular muscles of the iris

Options:

A.

I only

B.

III only

C.

I and II only

D.

II and III only

E.

I, II and III

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Questions 10

Bacterial resistance to an antibiotic may occurs due to:

I- Mutation

II- Adaptation

III- Gene transfer

Options:

A.

I only

B.

III only

C.

I and II only

D.

II and III only

E.

All are correct

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Questions 11

Purine may be the end product of:

Options:

A.

Amines

B.

Amino acids

C.

Uric acid

D.

Proteins

E.

Enzymes

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Questions 12

Identify the correct pathway of blood flow from the small intestine to the liver:

Options:

A.

haemorrhoidal vein ? portal vein.

B.

mesenteric vein ? portal vein.

C.

haemorrhoidal vein? inferior vena cava.

D.

mesenteric vein ? hepatic artery.

E.

gastric vein ? hepatic vein.

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Questions 13

The organophosphates commonly found in insecticides are thought to act by which of the following mechanisms?

Options:

A.

Combining with acetylcholine

B.

Potentiating the action of acetylcholinesterase

C.

Forming a very stable complex with acetylcholinesterase

D.

Reacting at the cholinergic receptor

E.

Preventing the release of acetylcholine from the nerve ending

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Questions 14

Hydrolysis of fixed oils may yields:

Options:

A.

Saturated + Unsaturated acids

B.

Glycerol + Fatty acids

C.

Glucose + Fatty acids

D.

Fatty acids + Triglycerides

E.

None of the above

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Questions 15

Enkephalins are peptides that:

Options:

A.

Have narcotic antagonist activity.

B.

Exert actions resembling those of opiates.

C.

Are found only in the central nervous system.

D.

Cause blood vessel wall relaxation.

E.

Transmit pain impulses.

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Questions 16

Glycine reaction is normally mediated by:

Options:

A.

Acetyl Coenzyme A

B.

UDP Glucoronyl tranferase

C.

PAPS- Phosphoadenosine-5-Phosphosulfate

D.

Sulfotranferase

E.

GST-Glutathione S-Transferase

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Questions 17

Degradation of hemoglobin in mammal involves:

Options:

A.

Formation of bile pigments

B.

Formation of urobilinogen

C.

Formation of biliverdin

D.

Non-oxidative cleavage of phosphirin ring

E.

All are correct

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Questions 18

Five subjects given a single intravenous dose of a drug have the following elimination half-lives: 3, 9, 6, 5 and 4 h (hours). The mean half-life is:

Options:

A.

4.0 h.

B.

5.0 h.

C.

5.4 h.

D.

5.8 h.

E.

6.0 h.

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Questions 19

Correct administration of Penicillamine in the treatment of rheumatois arthritis include:

Options:

A.

With meals

B.

In emptying stomach

C.

With plenty of water

D.

With orange juice

E.

Before bedtime

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Questions 20

Organisms commonly implicated in the cause of Traveller's Diarrhea include:

I Bacteroides fragilis

II Escherichia coli

III Shigella sp

Options:

A.

I only

B.

III only

C.

I and II only

D.

II and III only

E.

I, II and III

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Questions 21

Which financial statement could be used to determine the total value of prescription drug sales for a pharmacy during the course of a year?

Options:

A.

Balance sheet

B.

Statement of investments

C.

Statement of changes in financial position

D.

Income statement

E.

Statement of equity

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Questions 22

Class of nitrogen mustard is:

Options:

A.

Aquaretics

B.

Alkylating agents

C.

Lipid lowering drugs

D.

Drugs affecting calcium homeostasis

E.

Antivirals

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Questions 23

Which Cytochrome P450 isozyme does not participate appreciably in drug metabolism?

Options:

A.

CYP1A2

B.

CYP2C9

C.

CYP3A4

D.

CYP51

E.

All are drug metabolizing isoforms

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Questions 24

A patient purchasing sublingual nitroglycerin tablets should be told to store the medication:

Options:

A.

in the refrigerator

B.

in a plastic vial with a childproof cap

C.

with the original cotton

D.

in an amber glass bottle with a metal cap

E.

in a warm, dry place

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Questions 25

Mechanism of resistance of Invirase is:

Options:

A.

Mutation of viral DNA polymerase

B.

Mutations of viral protease

C.

Mutation of thymidilate synthase decreasing its affinity for the drug's active metabolite

D.

Tolerance

E.

Mutation of viral reverse transcriptase

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Questions 26

Half-life of adenosine is:

Options:

A.

70 days

B.

7-20 hours

C.

4 hours

D.

2 hours

E.

1-2 minutes

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Questions 27

Pannus is an inflammatory exudates characterized by:

I- Synovial cell proliferation inside of a joint

II- Normally occurs in patients with rheumatoid arthritis

III- An immunologic complication

Options:

A.

I only

B.

III only

C.

I and II only

D.

II and III only

E.

All are correct

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Questions 28

For the majority of drugs, which of the following equations correctly defines clearance?

Options:

A.

Cl = Elimination rate/Cp

B.

Cl = QxE

C.

Cl = .7VD/t1/2

D.

All are correct

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Questions 29

Mechanism of action of vancomycin is:

Options:

A.

Potentiates glucose-mediated insulin secretion

B.

Inhibits phospholipase C

C.

Mitotic spindle poison

D.

Inhibits transpeptidase

E.

Inhibits bacterial cell wall synthesis

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Questions 30

Mechanism of action of zalcitabine is:

Options:

A.

Inhibits inosine monophosphate dehydrogenase

B.

Inhibits reverse transcriptase

C.

Inhibits DNA gyrase

D.

Inhibits viral protease

E.

Inhibits dihydropteroate synthetase

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Questions 31

Cigarette smoke causes an increase in levels of CYP1A isozymes. Theophylline is primarily metabolized by the CYP1A system. What would happen to theophylline clearance for an asthmatic patient in hospital who could not smoke?

Options:

A.

No change

B.

Increase

C.

Decrease

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Questions 32

Class of pyrimethamine is:

Options:

A.

Antifolates

B.

Antivirals

C.

Aquaretics

D.

Autonomic nervous system drugs

E.

H2 antagonists

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Questions 33

Mechanism of action of ampicillin is:

Options:

A.

Inhibits cholesterol synthesis

B.

Inhibits transpeptidase

C.

Inhibits viral DNA polymerase

D.

Potentiates glucose-mediated insulin secretion

E.

Inhibits renal epithelial Na channels

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Questions 34

Approximately 50% of dicloxacillin is excreted unchanged in the urine. If the normal dosage schedule for dicloxacillin is 125 mg q6h, a patient with renal function 20% of normal should receive:

Options:

A.

25 mg q6h

B.

31.25 mg q6h

C.

62.5 mg q6h

D.

75 mg q6h

E.

125 mg q12h

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Questions 35

Mechanism of action of isoetharine is:

Options:

A.

Inhibits phosphodiesterase

B.

Reduces calcium influx into neurons

C.

Potentiates glucose-mediated insulin secretion

D.

Inhibits phospholipase A2

E.

beta-2 agonist

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Questions 36

Sulfinpyrazone is used as a(n):

Options:

A.

analgesic agent

B.

antipyretic agent

C.

anti-inflammatory agent

D.

agent which increases renal tubular reabsorption of uric acid

E.

uricosuric agent

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Questions 37

Which of the following causes the smallest change in solubility?

Options:

A.

Hydroxylation

B.

Glucuronidation

C.

Sulfation

D.

Glutathione conjugation

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Questions 38

Which of the following drugs is associated with the reaction of Cinchonism?

Options:

A.

Valproic acid

B.

Quinidine

C.

Isoniazid

D.

Ethosuximide

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Questions 39

Mechanism of action of ganciclovir is:

Options:

A.

Inhibits viral uncoating

B.

Inhibits viral DNA polymerase

C.

Inhibits Na-Cl transporter

D.

Inhibits RNA-dependent RNA polymerase

E.

Blocks K channels

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Questions 40

Which of the following statements refers to HPMPC?

Options:

A.

Tricyclic.

B.

Cytosine monophosphate analog

C.

Works by accumulating in and changing pH of lysosomes.

D.

Mild intrinsic sympathomimetic activity - does not decrease heart rate and contractility as much during exercise.

E.

Metabolized in liver by P450.

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Questions 41

Viral encephalitis, a CNS infection, may be best be treated by which of the following agents?

Options:

A.

Benzyl penicillin

B.

Ceftriaxone

C.

Acyclovir

D.

Streptomycin

E.

Vancomycin

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Questions 42

Examples of extended spectrum penicillin may include:

Options:

A.

Amoxicillin

B.

Ampicillin

C.

Cloxacillin

D.

Carbenicillin

E.

Dicloxacillin

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Questions 43

Patient is resistant to chloroquine and need to be treated for malaria. Which of the following drugs or combination should be more appropriate for this patient?

Options:

A.

Atovaquone only

B.

Chloroquine and primaquine

C.

Quinine and doxacycline

D.

Mefloquine

E.

C and D are correct

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Questions 44

Examples of very narrow spectrum penicillins include all of the following, EXCEPT:

Options:

A.

Amoxicillin

B.

Nafcillin

C.

Methicillin

D.

Oxacillin

E.

All are very narrow spectrum penicillins

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Questions 45

Side effect of triamcinolone is:

Options:

A.

Asthma

B.

Nausea

C.

Cataracts

D.

Anxiety

E.

Hyperglycemia

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Questions 46

Mechanism of action of cocaine is:

Options:

A.

Inhibits Na-Cl transporter

B.

Muscarinic agonist

C.

beta-2 agonist

D.

beta-1 antagonist

E.

Blocks catecholamine uptake by axonal terminal

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Questions 47

Correct statements regarding Pellagra include:

I- Caused due to deficiency of niacin

II- Caused by failure in converting tryptophan to niacin

III- Characterized by dermatitis, diarrhea and dementia

Options:

A.

I only

B.

III only

C.

I and II only

D.

II and III only

E.

All are correct

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Questions 48

Which of the following is NOT a side effect of tetracycline?

Options:

A.

Alteration in gut flora

B.

Disulfiram like reactions

C.

Teeth permanent discoloration

D.

Fanconi like syndrome

E.

Hyperchloremic metabolic acidosis

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Questions 49

Class of nelfinavir is:

Options:

A.

Glucocorticosteroids

B.

Anti-asthmatic agents

C.

Polyenes

D.

Antivirals

E.

Autonomic nervous system drugs

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Questions 50

Which of the following is the antidote for the toxin Lead?

Options:

A.

Naloxone

B.

Nitrite

C.

CaEDTA

D.

Dialysis

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Questions 51

Which of the following statements refers to fansidar?

Options:

A.

Effect monitored by PT (prothrombin timE.

B.

Embryopathy is due to production of epoxide metabolites. It is especially common when several anticonvulsants are used together.

C.

Is a mixture of trimethoprim and sulfamethoxazole

D.

Minimal GI absorption.

E.

Allergic reactions (cutaneous) can be fatal in 1/20,000 users.

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Questions 52

Gonorrhea, a sexually transmitted disease may be treated by which of the following agents?

I- Cefixime

II- Ceftriaxone

III- Ciprofloxacin

Options:

A.

I only

B.

III only

C.

I and II only

D.

II and III only

E.

All are correct

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Questions 53

Half-life of tolbutamide is:

Options:

A.

12-24 hours

B.

3 hours

C.

6-12 hours

D.

10 hours

E.

8 hours

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Questions 54

Correct statements regarding CEPHALOSPORINS include:

I- Bactericidal antimicrobial

II- Derivated from natural source: Cephalosporium acremonium

III- Broad-spectrum agent

Options:

A.

I only

B.

III only

C.

I and II only

D.

II and III only

E.

All are correct

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Questions 55

Indication of sodium valproate is:

Options:

A.

Prophylaxis of certain infections

B.

Partial complex seizures

C.

Bipolar disorder

D.

Delirium tremor

E.

Primary immunodeficiency

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Questions 56

Diseases which are viral infections include:

I poliomyelitis

II rabies

III Legionnaires' disease

Options:

A.

I only

B.

III only

C.

I and II only

D.

II and III only

E.

I, II and III

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Questions 57

Which of the following vitamin is not water-soluble?

Options:

A.

Vitamin B

B.

Vitamin C

C.

Vitamin D

D.

Folic acid

E.

Riboflavin

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Questions 58

The effectiveness of VANCOMYCIN is seen ONLY in:

Options:

A.

Virus

B.

Gram-negative bacterias

C.

Gram-positive bacterias

D.

Both gram-positive and negative bacterias

E.

Plasmodium

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Questions 59

GLYCOGENESIS is a process characterized by:

Options:

A.

The breakdown of glycogen into glucose

B.

The transformation of glucose to glycogen

C.

The breakdown of sugar into pyruvate

D.

The breakdown of sugar into lactate

E.

The formation of glucose from non-carbohydrates sources

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Questions 60

Diphtheria is caused by:

Options:

A.

Plasmodium.

B.

Vibrio.

C.

Shigella.

D.

Neisseria.

E.

Corynebacterium.

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Questions 61

Which of the following is an essential amino acid?

Options:

A.

Histadiol

B.

Cysteine

C.

Methionine

D.

Aspartene

E.

Glutamine

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Questions 62

Nosocomial infections may be best treated by which of the following agents?

I- Cephalosporin 3rd generation

II- Macrolides antibiotics

III- Penicillins

Options:

A.

I only

B.

III only

C.

I and II only

D.

II and III only

E.

All are correct

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Questions 63

All of the following are narrow spectrum protein synthesis inhibitors, EXCEPT:

Options:

A.

Erythromycin

B.

Azithromycin

C.

Clarithromycin

D.

Tetracycline

E.

Clindamycin

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Exam Code: FPGEE
Exam Name: Foreign Pharmacy Graduate Equivalency Examination
Last Update: Nov 24, 2024
Questions: 426
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