Which set of procedures is typically NOT addressed within data privacy policies?
Procedures to limit access and disclosure of personal information to third parties
Procedures for handling data access requests from individuals
Procedures for configuration settings in identity access management
Procedures for incident reporting and notification
Data privacy policies are documents that outline how an organization collects, uses, stores, shares, and protects personal information from its customers, employees, partners, and other stakeholders1. Data privacy policies should address the following key elements2:
Procedures for configuration settings in identity access management are typically not addressed within data privacy policies, as they are more related to the technical and operational aspects of data security and access control. Identity access management (IAM) is a framework of policies, processes, and technologies that enable an organization to manage and verify the identities and access rights of its users and devices3. IAM configuration settings determine how users and devices are authenticated, authorized, and audited when accessing data and resources. IAM configuration settings should be aligned with the data privacy policies and principles, but they are not part of the data privacy policies themselves. IAM configuration settings should be documented and maintained separately from data privacy policies, and should be reviewed and updated regularly to ensure compliance and security. References: 1: What is a Data Privacy Policy? | OneTrust 2: Privacy Policy Checklist: What to Include in Your Privacy Policy 3: What is identity and access management? | IBM : [Identity and Access Management Configuration Settings] : [Why data privacy and third-party risk teams need to work … - OneTrust] : [Privacy Risk Management - ISACA] : [What Every Chief Privacy Officer Should Know About Third-Party Risk …]
Which statement is FALSE regarding problem or issue management?
Problems or issues are the root cause of an actual or potential incident
Problem or issue management involves managing workarounds or known errors
Problems or issues typically lead to systemic failures
Problem or issue management may reduce the likelihood and impact of incidents
In the context of Third-Party Risk Management (TPRM), problems or issues do not inherently lead to systemic failures but are indicative of underlying faults within processes or systems that could potentially result in incidents. Problem or issue management is a critical component of TPRM, focusing on identifying, classifying, and managing the root causes of incidents to prevent their recurrence and mitigate their impact. Effective problem management involves not just managing workarounds or known errors, but also implementing permanent fixes to eliminate the root causes of problems. By addressing the underlying issues, organizations can enhance their operational resilience and reduce the likelihood and impact of future incidents. This approach aligns with best practices in TPRM, emphasizing proactive risk identification, assessment, and mitigation to safeguard against potential disruptions in the supply chain and third-party ecosystems.
References:
Which statement BEST represents the primary objective of a third party risk assessment:
To assess the appropriateness of non-disclosure agreements regarding the organization's systems/data
To validate that the vendor/service provider has adequate controls in place based on the organization's risk posture
To determine the scope of the business relationship
To evaluate the risk posture of all vendors/service providers in the vendor inventory
The primary objective of a third party risk assessment is to validate that the vendor/service provider has adequate controls in place based on the organization’s risk posture. A third party risk assessment (also known as supplier risk assessment) quantifies the risks associated with third-party vendors and suppliers that provide products or services to your organization1. This assessment is useful for analyzing both new and ongoing supplier relationships. The growing risk of supply chain attacks makes it critical to conduct thorough and regular risk assessments of your third parties. A third party risk assessment helps you identify, measure, and mitigate the potential risks that your third parties pose to your organization, such as data breaches, cyberattacks, compliance violations, operational disruptions, reputational damage, or financial losses. A third party risk assessment also helps you align your third party risk management (TPRM) program with your organization’s risk appetite, policies, standards, and procedures. A third party risk assessment typically involves the following steps1:
The other statements are not the primary objective of a third party risk assessment, although they may be related or secondary objectives. Assessing the appropriateness of non-disclosure agreements regarding the organization’s systems/data is a legal objective that may be part of the contract negotiation or review process. Determining the scope of the business relationship is a strategic objective that may be part of the vendor selection or due diligence process. Evaluating the risk posture of all vendors/service providers in the vendor inventory is a holistic objective that may be part of the vendor risk management or governance process. References:
Your company has been alerted that an IT vendor began utilizing a subcontractor located in a country restricted by company policy. What is the BEST approach to handle this situation?
Notify management to approve an exception and ensure that contract provisions require prior “notification and evidence of subcontractor due diligence
inform the business unit and recommend that the company cease future work with the IT vendor due to company policy
Update the vender inventory with the mew location information in order to schedule a reassessment
Inform the business unit and ask the vendor to replace the subcontractor at their expense in “order to move the processing back to an approved country
This answer is the best approach because it aligns with the principles of third-party risk management, which include ensuring compliance with company policies, contractual obligations, and regulatory requirements. By asking the vendor to replace the subcontractor, the company is exercising its right to terminate or modify the relationship if the vendor fails to meet the agreed-upon standards or poses unacceptable risks. This also minimizes the potential impact of the vendor’s non-compliance on the company’s reputation, operations, and data security. The other options are less effective because they either ignore the issue, compromise the company’s policy, or rely on the vendor’s self-assessment without verification. References:
Which of the following is typically NOT included within the scape of an organization's network access policy?
Firewall settings
Unauthorized device detection
Website privacy consent banners
Remote access
A network access policy is a set of rules and conditions that define how authorized users and devices can access the network resources and services of an organization. It typically includes the following elements12:
Therefore, the correct answer is C. Website privacy consent banners, as they are typically not included within the scope of an organization’s network access policy. References:
During the contract negotiation process for a new vendor, the vendor states they have legal obligations to retain data for tax purposes. However, your company policy requires data
return or destruction at contract termination. Which statement provides the BEST approach to address this conflict?
Determine if a policy exception and approval is required, and require that data safeguarding obligations continue after termination
Change the risk rating of the vendor to reflect a higher risk tier
Insist the vendor adheres to the policy and contract provisions without exception
Conduct an assessment of the vendor's data governance and records management program
The best approach to address the conflict between the vendor’s legal obligations to retain data for tax purposes and the company’s policy to require data return or destruction at contract termination is A. Determine if a policy exception and approval is required, and require that data safeguarding obligations continue after termination. This approach recognizes that the vendor may have valid reasons to retain some data for a certain period of time, and that the company may have flexibility to grant exceptions to its policy under certain circumstances. However, this approach also ensures that the company maintains oversight and control over the data that the vendor retains, and that the vendor continues to comply with the data safeguarding obligations, such as encryption, access control, audit, and breach notification, until the data is returned or destroyed. This approach balances the interests and risks of both parties, and minimizes the potential for data breaches, misuse, or loss.
The other approaches are not the best ways to address the conflict, as they may create more problems or risks for either party. B. Change the risk rating of the vendor to reflect a higher risk tier. This approach does not resolve the conflict, but rather shifts the responsibility to the company to manage the increased risk of the vendor retaining the data. Changing the risk rating may also affect the contract terms, such as pricing, service level agreements, or liability clauses, and may require renegotiation or termination of the contract. C. Insist the vendor adheres to the policy and contract provisions without exception. This approach is too rigid and may not be feasible or reasonable for the vendor, especially if they have legal obligations to retain the data. This approach may also damage the relationship and trust between the parties, and may lead to disputes or litigation. D. Conduct an assessment of the vendor’s data governance and records management program. This approach is too time-consuming and costly, and may not be necessary or relevant for the conflict. Conducting an assessment may provide some assurance about the vendor’s data practices, but it does not address the underlying issue of the conflicting data retention requirements. Moreover, conducting an assessment may not be possible or appropriate during the contract negotiation process, as it may require access to the vendor’s systems, data, or personnel. References:
Information classification of personal information may trigger specific regulatory obligations. Which statement is the BEST response from a privacy perspective:
Personally identifiable financial information includes only consumer report information
Public personal information includes only web or online identifiers
Personally identifiable information and personal data are similar in context, but may have different legal definitions based upon jurisdiction
Personally Identifiable Information and Protected Healthcare Information require the exact same data protection safequards
Personal information is any information that can be used to identify an individual, either directly or indirectly, such as name, address, email, phone number, ID number, etc. Personal data is a term used in some jurisdictions, such as the European Union, to refer to personal information that is subject to data protection laws and regulations. However, the scope and definition of personal data may vary depending on the jurisdiction and the context. For example, the GDPR defines personal data as “any information relating to an identified or identifiable natural person” and includes online identifiers, such as IP addresses, cookies, or device IDs, as well as special categories of data, such as biometric, genetic, health, or political data. On the other hand, the US does not have a single federal law that regulates personal data, but rather a patchwork of sector-specific and state-level laws that may have different definitions and requirements. For example, the California Consumer Privacy Act (CCPA) defines personal information as “information that identifies, relates to, describes, is reasonably capable of being associated with, or could reasonably be linked, directly or indirectly, with a particular consumer or household” and excludes publicly available information from its scope. Therefore, from a privacy perspective, it is important to understand the different legal definitions and obligations that may apply to personal information or personal data depending on the jurisdiction and the context of the data processing activity. References:
Upon completion of a third party assessment, a meeting should be scheduled with which
of the following resources prior to sharing findings with the vendor/service provider to
approve remediation plans:
CISO/CIO
Business Unit Relationship Owner
internal Audit
C&O
According to the Shared Assessments CTPRP Study Guide, the business unit relationship owner is the primary point of contact for the third party and is responsible for ensuring that the third party meets the contractual obligations and service level agreements. The business unit relationship owner is also involved in the third party risk assessment process and the remediation plan approval. Therefore, a meeting should be scheduled with the business unit relationship owner before sharing the findings and remediation plans with the third party, as they have the authority and accountability to approve or reject the plans. The other options are not necessarily involved in the remediation plan approval, although they may have other roles in the third party risk management lifecycle. References:
The set of shared values and beliefs that govern a company’s attitude toward risk is known as:
Risk tolerance
Risk treatment
Risk culture
Risk appetite
Risk culture is the term used to describe the collective way that an organization thinks about, manages, and responds to risk. It is influenced by the organization’s values, beliefs, norms, and practices, as well as the external environment and stakeholders. Risk culture affects how employees perceive, communicate, and act on risk issues, and how they balance risk and reward in their decision making. A strong risk culture is one that supports the organization’s strategic objectives, fosters accountability and transparency, and promotes learning and improvement. A weak risk culture is one that undermines the organization’s risk management framework, creates silos and conflicts, and exposes the organization to excessive or unnecessary risks. References:
The primary disadvantage of Single Sign-On (SSO) access control is:
The impact of a compromise of the end-user credential that provides access to multiple systems is greater
A single password is easier to guess and be exploited
Users store multiple passwords in a single repository limiting the ability to change the password
Vendors must develop multiple methods to integrate system access adding cost and complexity
Single Sign-On (SSO) is a convenient and efficient way of authenticating users across multiple applications and platforms with a single set of credentials. However, it also poses some security risks and challenges that need to be considered and addressed. One of the main disadvantages of SSO is that it creates a single point of failure and a high-value target for attackers. If an end-user credential is compromised, the attacker can gain access to all the systems and resources that the user is authorized to access, potentially causing significant damage and data breaches. Therefore, SSO requires strong security measures to protect the user credentials, such as encryption, multifactor authentication, password policies, and monitoring. Additionally, SSO users need to be aware of the risks and follow best practices to safeguard their credentials, such as using strong and unique passwords, changing them regularly, and avoiding phishing and social engineering attacks. References:
Which type of contract provision is MOST important in managing Fourth-Nth party risk after contract signing and on-boarding due diligence is complete?
Subcontractor notice and approval
Indemnification and liability
Breach notification
Right to audit
Fourth-Nth party risk refers to the potential threats and vulnerabilities associated with the subcontractors, vendors, or service providers of an organization’s direct third-party partners12. After contract signing and on-boarding due diligence is complete, the most important type of contract provision to manage Fourth-Nth party risk is subcontractor notice and approval. This provision requires the third party to inform the organization of any subcontracting arrangements and obtain the organization’s consent before engaging any Fourth-Nth parties345. This provision enables the organization to have visibility and control over the extended network of suppliers and service providers, and to assess the potential risks and impacts of any outsourcing decisions. Subcontractor notice and approval also helps the organization to ensure that the Fourth-Nth parties comply with the same standards and expectations as the third party, and to hold the third party accountable for the performance and security of the Fourth-Nth parties345. References:
All of the following processes are components of controls evaluation in the Third Party Risk Assessment process EXCEPT:
Reviewing compliance artifacts for the presence of control attributes
Negotiating contract terms for the right to audit
Analyzing assessment results to identify and report risk
Scoping the assessment based on identified risk factors
Controls evaluation is the process of verifying and validating the effectiveness of the controls implemented by the third party to mitigate the identified risks. It involves reviewing the evidence provided by the third party, such as policies, procedures, certifications, attestations, or test results, to determine if the controls are adequate, consistent, and compliant with the requirements and standards of the organization. Controls evaluation also involves analyzing the assessment results to identify any gaps, weaknesses, or issues in the third party’s controls, and reporting the findings and recommendations to the relevant stakeholders. Negotiating contract terms for the right to audit is not a component of controls evaluation, but rather a component of contract management. Contract management is the process of establishing, maintaining, and enforcing the contractual agreements between the organization and the third party. It involves defining the roles, responsibilities, expectations, and obligations of both parties, as well as the terms and conditions for service delivery, performance measurement, risk management, dispute resolution, and termination. Negotiating contract terms for the right to audit is a key aspect of contract management, as it allows the organization to monitor and verify the third party’s compliance with the contract and the applicable regulations and standards. It also enables the organization to conduct independent audits or assessments of the third party’s controls, processes, and performance, and to request remediation actions if necessary. References:
The following statements reflect user obligations defined in end-user device policies
EXCEPT:
A statement specifying the owner of data on the end-user device
A statement that defines the process to remove all organizational data, settings and accounts alt offboarding
A statement detailing user responsibility in ensuring the security of the end-user device
A statement that specifies the ability to synchronize mobile device data with enterprise systems
End-user device policies are policies that establish the rules and requirements for the use and management of devices that access organizational data, networks, and systems. These policies typically include user obligations that define the responsibilities and expectations of the users regarding the security, privacy, and compliance of the devices they use. According to the web search results from the search_web tool, some common user obligations defined in end-user device policies are:
However, option D, a statement that specifies the ability to synchronize mobile device data with enterprise systems, is not a user obligation defined in end-user device policies. Rather, this statement is a feature or functionality that may be enabled or disabled by the organization or the device manager, depending on the security and compliance needs of the organization. This statement may also be part of a device configuration policy or a mobile device management policy, which are different from end-user device policies. Therefore, option D is the correct answer, as it is the only one that does not reflect a user obligation defined in end-user device policies. References: The following resources support the verified answer and explanation:
Which TPRM risk assessment component would typically NOT be maintained in a Risk Register?
An assessment of the impact and likelihood the risk will occur and the possible seriousness
Vendor inventory of all suppliers, vendors, and service providers prioritized by contract value
An outline of proposed mitigation actions and assignment of risk owner
A grading of each risk according to a risk assessment table or hierarchy
A risk register is a tool that records and tracks the identified risks, their probability, impact, status, and mitigation actions throughout the life cycle of a third-party relationship1. A risk register typically includes the following components2:
Which statement is NOT an example of the purpose of internal communications and information sharing using TPRM performance metrics?
To communicate the status of findings identified in vendor assessments and escalate issues es needed
To communicate the status of policy compliance with TPRM onboarding, periodic assessment and off-boarding requirements
To document the agreed upon corrective action plan between external parties based on the severity of findings
To develop and provide periodic reporting to management based on TPRM results
The purpose of internal communications and information sharing using TPRM performance metrics is to inform and align the organization’s stakeholders on the status, progress, and outcomes of the TPRM program. This includes communicating the results of vendor assessments, the compliance level of the organization’s policies and procedures, and the periodic reporting to management and other relevant parties. However, documenting the corrective action plan between external parties is not an internal communication, but rather an external one. This is because the corrective action plan is a formal agreement between the organization and the vendor to address and resolve the issues identified in the assessment. Therefore, this statement is not an example of the purpose of internal communications and information sharing using TPRM performance metrics. References:
Which of the following indicators is LEAST likely to trigger a reassessment of an existing vendor?
Change in vendor location or use of new fourth parties
Change in scope of existing work (e.g., new data or system access)
Change in regulation that impacts service provider requirements
Change at outsourcer due to M&A
This answer is correct because a change at outsourcer due to merger and acquisition (M&A) is the least likely indicator to trigger a reassessment of an existing vendor. This is because the outsourcer is not the direct vendor of the organization, but rather a third party that the vendor uses to perform some of its services. Therefore, the impact of the change at the outsourcer on the vendor’s performance and risk level may not be significant or immediate. However, the other indicators (A, B, and C) are more likely to trigger a reassessment of an existing vendor, as they directly affect the vendor’s operations, capabilities, and compliance status. For example:
Which activity BEST describes conducting due diligence of a lower risk vendor?
Accepting a service providers self-assessment questionnaire responses
Preparing reports to management regarding the status of third party risk management and remediation activities
Reviewing a service provider's self-assessment questionnaire and external audit report(s)
Requesting and filing a service provider's external audit report(s) for future reference
Due diligence is the process of evaluating the risks and opportunities associated with a potential or existing third-party vendor. Due diligence can vary in scope and depth depending on the level of risk that the vendor poses to the organization. Lower risk vendors are those that have minimal impact on the organization’s operations, reputation, or compliance, and that do not handle sensitive or confidential data or systems. For lower risk vendors, conducting due diligence may involve accepting the service provider’s self-assessment questionnaire responses as sufficient evidence of their capabilities, performance, and compliance. A self-assessment questionnaire is a tool that allows the vendor to provide information about their organization, services, processes, controls, and policies. The organization can use the questionnaire to verify the vendor’s identity, qualifications, references, and certifications, and to assess the vendor’s alignment with the organization’s standards and expectations. Accepting the vendor’s self-assessment questionnaire responses as the primary source of due diligence can save time and resources for the organization, and can also demonstrate trust and confidence in the vendor. However, the organization should also ensure that the questionnaire is comprehensive, relevant, and updated, and that the vendor’s responses are accurate, complete, and consistent. The organization should also reserve the right to request additional information or documentation from the vendor if needed, and to conduct periodic reviews or audits of the vendor’s performance and compliance.
The other options do not best describe conducting due diligence of a lower risk vendor, because they either involve more extensive or rigorous methods of due diligence, or they are not directly related to due diligence. Preparing reports to management regarding the status of third party risk management and remediation activities is an important part of monitoring and managing the vendor relationship, but it is not a due diligence activity per se. Reviewing a service provider’s self-assessment questionnaire and external audit report(s) is a more thorough way of conducting due diligence, but it may not be necessary or feasible for lower risk vendors, especially if the external audit report(s) are not readily available or relevant. Requesting and filing a service provider’s external audit report(s) for future reference is a good practice for maintaining documentation and evidence of due diligence, but it is not a due diligence activity itself.
References:
Which of the following methods of validating pre-employment screening attributes is appropriate due to limitations of international or state regulation?
Reviewing evidence of web search of social media sites
Providing and sampling complete personnel files to demonstrate unique screening results
Requiring evidence of drug testing
Requesting evidence of the performance of pre-employment screening when permitted by law
it is the most appropriate and compliant method of validating pre-employment screening attributes among the given options. Requesting evidence of the performance of pre-employment screening when permitted by law means that the organization respects the legal and regulatory boundaries of different jurisdictions and does not impose unnecessary or unlawful requirements on its third parties. It also ensures that the organization obtains relevant and reliable information about the third parties’ screening processes and outcomes, which can help assess their suitability and risk level.
The other options are incorrect because they are either inappropriate or ineffective methods of validating pre-employment screening attributes. Reviewing evidence of web search of social media sites (A) is inappropriate because it may violate the privacy and data protection rights of the third parties and their employees, as well as expose the organization to potential bias and discrimination claims. Providing and sampling complete personnel files to demonstrate unique screening results (B) is ineffective because it may not reflect the actual screening attributes of the third parties, as they may have different screening criteria, standards, and methods than the organization. Requiring evidence of drug testing © is inappropriate because it may not be relevant or necessary for the nature and scope of the third-party relationship, and it may also conflict with the laws and regulations of different jurisdictions that prohibit or limit such testing. References:
https://www.onetrust.com/blog/third-party-risk-management/
Which vendor statement provides the BEST description of the concept of least privilege?
We require dual authorization for restricted areas
We grant people access to the minimum necessary to do their job
We require separation of duties for performance of high risk activities
We limit root and administrator access to only a few personnel
The concept of least privilege is a security principle that requires giving each user, service, and application only the permissions needed to perform their work and no more12. It is one of the most important concepts in network and system security, as it reduces the attack surface and the risk of unauthorized access, data breaches, and malware infections12. The statement B best describes this concept, as it implies that the vendor follows the principle of least privilege by granting people access to the minimum necessary to do their job. The other statements do not capture the essence of the concept, as they either describe other security practices (such as dual authorization and separation of duties) or limit the scope of the concept to a specific type of access (such as root and administrator access).
References:
When defining third party requirements for transmitting Pll, which factors provide stranger controls?
Full disk encryption and backup
Available bandwidth and redundancy
Strength of encryption cipher and authentication method
Logging and monitoring
Personally identifiable information (PII) is any data that can be used to identify, contact, or locate an individual, such as name, address, email, phone number, social security number, etc. PII is subject to various legal and regulatory requirements, such as the GDPR, HIPAA, PCI DSS, and others, depending on the industry and jurisdiction. PII also poses significant security and privacy risks, as it can be exploited by malicious actors for identity theft, fraud, phishing, or other cyberattacks. Therefore, organizations that collect, store, process, or transmit PII must implement appropriate safeguards to protect it from unauthorized access, disclosure, modification, or loss.
One of the key safeguards for PII protection is encryption, which is the process of transforming data into an unreadable format using a secret key. Encryption ensures that only authorized parties who have the key can access the original data. Encryption can be applied to data at rest (stored on a device or a server) or data in transit (moving across a network or the internet). Encryption can also be symmetric (using the same key for encryption and decryption) or asymmetric (using a public key for encryption and a private key for decryption).
Another key safeguard for PII protection is authentication, which is the process of verifying the identity of a user or a system that requests access to data. Authentication ensures that only legitimate and authorized parties can access the data. Authentication can be based on something the user knows (such as a password or a PIN), something the user has (such as a token or a smart card), something the user is (such as a fingerprint or a face scan), or a combination of these factors. Authentication can also be enhanced by using additional methods, such as one-time passwords, challenge-response questions, or multi-factor authentication.
When defining third party requirements for transmitting PII, the factors that provide stronger controls are the strength of encryption cipher and authentication method. These factors determine how secure and reliable the data transmission is, and how resistant it is to potential attacks or breaches. The strength of encryption cipher refers to the algorithm and the key size used to encrypt the data. The stronger the cipher, the more difficult it is to break or crack the encryption. The strength of authentication method refers to the type and the number of factors used to verify the identity of the user or the system. The stronger the authentication method, the more difficult it is to impersonate or compromise the user or the system.
The other factors, such as full disk encryption and backup, available bandwidth and redundancy, and logging and monitoring, are also important for PII protection, but they do not directly affect the data transmission process. Full disk encryption and backup are relevant for data at rest, not data in transit. They provide protection in case of device theft, loss, or damage, but they do not prevent data interception or modification during transmission. Available bandwidth and redundancy are relevant for data availability and performance, not data security and privacy. They ensure that the data transmission is fast and reliable, but they do not prevent data exposure or corruption during transmission. Logging and monitoring are relevant for data audit and compliance, not data encryption and authentication. They provide visibility and accountability for the data transmission activities, but they do not prevent data access or misuse during transmission. References:
Which factor is MOST important when scoping assessments of cloud-based third parties that access, process, and retain personal data?
The geographic location of the vendor's outsourced datacenters since assessments are only required for international data transfers
The identification of the type of cloud hosting deployment or service model in order to confirm responsibilities between the third party and the cloud hosting provider
The definition of requirements for backup capabilities for power generation and redundancy in the resilience plan
The contract terms for the configuration of the environment which may prevent conducting the assessment
The most important factor when scoping assessments of cloud-based third parties that access, process, and retain personal data is to identify the type of cloud hosting deployment or service model. This is because different cloud models have different implications for the allocation of security responsibilities between the third party and the cloud hosting provider. For example, in a Software as a Service (SaaS) model, the cloud provider is responsible for most of the security controls, while in an Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS) model, the third party is responsible for securing its own data and applications. Therefore, it is essential to understand the type of cloud model and the corresponding security roles and responsibilities before conducting an assessment. This will help to avoid gaps, overlaps, or conflicts in security controls and expectations. References:
Which statement is NOT a method of securing web applications?
Ensure appropriate logging and review of access and events
Conduct periodic penetration tests
Adhere to web content accessibility guidelines
Include validation checks in SDLC for cross site scripting and SOL injections
Web content accessibility guidelines (WCAG) are a set of standards that aim to make web content more accessible to people with disabilities, such as visual, auditory, cognitive, or motor impairments. While WCAG is a good practice for web development and usability, it is not directly related to web application security. WCAG does not address the common security risks that web applications face, such as injection, broken authentication, misconfiguration, or vulnerable components. Therefore, adhering to WCAG is not a method of securing web applications, unlike the other options. References:
Which factor describes the concept of criticality of a service provider relationship when determining vendor classification?
Criticality is limited to only the set of vendors involved in providing disaster recovery services
Criticality is determined as all high risk vendors with access to personal information
Criticality is assigned to the subset of vendor relationships that pose the greatest impact due to their unavailability
Criticality is described as the set of vendors with remote access or network connectivity to company systems
Criticality is a measure of how essential a service provider is to the organization’s core business functions and objectives. It reflects the potential consequences of a service disruption or failure on the organization’s operations, reputation, compliance, and financial performance. Criticality is not the same as risk, which is the likelihood and severity of a negative event occurring. Criticality helps to prioritize the risk assessment and mitigation efforts for different service providers based on their relative importance to the organization. Criticality is not limited to a specific type of service, such as disaster recovery or personal information, nor is it determined by the mode of access or connectivity. Criticality is assigned to the service providers that have the greatest impact on the organization’s ability to deliver its products or services to its customers and stakeholders in a timely and satisfactory manner. References:
Which statement BEST describes the use of risk based decisioning in prioritizing gaps identified at a critical vendor when defining the corrective action plan?
The assessor determined that gaps should be analyzed, documented, reviewed for compensating controls, and submitted to the business owner to approve risk treatment plan
The assessor decided that the critical gaps should be discussed in the closing meeting so that the vendor can begin to implement corrective actions immediately
The assessor concluded that all gaps should be logged and treated as high severity findings since the assessment was performed on a critical vendor
The assessor determined that all gaps should be logged and communicated that if the gaps were corrected immediately they would not need to be included in the findings report
According to the Shared Assessments Certified Third Party Risk Professional (CTPRP) Study Guide, risk based decisioning is the process of applying risk criteria to prioritize and address the gaps identified during a third-party risk assessment1. The assessor should analyze the gaps based on the impact, likelihood, and urgency of the risk, and document the findings and recommendations in a report. The assessor should also review the existing or proposed compensating controls that could mitigate the risk, and submit the report to the business owner for approval of the risk treatment plan. The risk treatment plan could include accepting, transferring, avoiding, or reducing the risk, depending on the risk appetite and tolerance of the organization1.
The other statements do not reflect the best use of risk based decisioning, as they either ignore the risk analysis and documentation process, or apply a uniform or arbitrary approach to prioritizing and addressing the gaps. The assessor should not decide or conclude on the risk treatment plan without consulting the business owner, as the business owner is ultimately responsible for the third-party relationship and the risk management decisions1. The assessor should also not communicate that the gaps would not be included in the report if they were corrected immediately, as this could compromise the integrity and transparency of the assessment process and the report2.
References:
The BEST time in the SDLC process for an application service provider to perform Threat Modeling analysis is:
Before the application design and development activities begin
After the application vulnerability or penetration test is completed
After testing and before the deployment of the final code into production
Prior to the execution of a contract with each client
Threat modeling is a core element of the Microsoft Security Development Lifecycle (SDL) and a structured approach to identify, quantify, and address the security risks associated with an application12. Threat modeling helps to shape the application’s design, meet the security objectives, and reduce risk1. The best time to perform threat modeling analysis is before the application design and development activities begin, as this allows the application service provider to:
An IT asset management program should include all of the following components EXCEPT:
Maintaining inventories of systems, connections, and software applications
Defining application security standards for internally developed applications
Tracking and monitoring availability of vendor updates and any timelines for end of support
Identifying and tracking adherence to IT asset end-of-life policy
An IT asset management program is a set of processes and tools that help an organization manage its IT assets throughout their lifecycle, from acquisition to disposal. An IT asset management program should include the following components1234:
Defining application security standards for internally developed applications is not a component of an IT asset management program, but rather a component of an application development and security program. An application development and security program is a set of processes and tools that help an organization design, develop, test, deploy, and maintain secure and reliable applications, whether they are internally developed or acquired from external sources. An application development and security program should include the following components5 :
References:
Which statement is TRUE regarding a vendor's approach to Environmental, Social, and Governance (ESG) programs?
ESG expectations are driven by a company's executive team for internal commitments end not external entities
ESG requirements and programs may be directed by regulatory obligations or in response to company commitments
ESG commitments can only be measured qualitatively so it cannot be included in vendor due diligence standards
ESG obligations only apply to a company with publicly traded stocks
ESG programs are initiatives that aim to improve the environmental, social, and governance performance of a vendor or service provider. ESG programs may be driven by various factors, such as regulatory obligations, customer expectations, stakeholder pressure, industry standards, or company commitments. Therefore, statement B is true and the correct answer is B. Statement A is false because ESG expectations may come from external entities, such as regulators, investors, customers, or civil society. Statement C is false because ESG commitments can be measured both qualitatively and quantitatively, using indicators such as carbon emissions, diversity, ethics, or compliance. Statement D is false because ESG obligations may apply to any company, regardless of its size, ownership, or sector. References:
Which statement is FALSE when describing the third party risk assessors’ role when conducting a controls evaluation using an industry framework?
The Assessor's role is to conduct discovery with subject matter experts to understand the control environment
The Assessor's role is to conduct discovery and validate responses from the risk assessment questionnaire by testing or validating controls
The Assessor's role is to provide an opinion on the effectiveness of controls conducted over a period of time in their report
The Assessor's role is to review compliance artifacts and identify potential control gaps based on evaluation of the presence of control attributes
According to the Shared Assessments Certified Third Party Risk Professional (CTPRP) Study Guide, the third party risk assessor’s role is to evaluate the design and operating effectiveness of the third party’s controls based on an industry framework, such as ISO, NIST, COBIT, or COSO1. The assessor’s role is not to provide an opinion on the effectiveness of controls, but rather to report the results of the evaluation in a factual and objective manner2. The assessor’s role is also to conduct discovery with subject matter experts to understand the control environment, to conduct discovery and validate responses from the risk assessment questionnaire by testing or validating controls, and to review compliance artifacts and identify potential control gaps based on evaluation of the presence of control attributes1. These are all true statements that describe the assessor’s role when conducting a controls evaluation using an industry framework.
References:
You are reviewing assessment results of workstation and endpoint security. Which result should trigger more investigation due to greater risk potential?
Use of multi-tenant laptops
Disabled printing and USB devices
Use of desktop virtualization
Disabled or blocked access to internet
Workstation and endpoint security refers to the protection of devices that connect to a network from malicious actors and exploits1. These devices include laptops, desktops, tablets, smartphones, and IoT devices. Workstation and endpoint security can involve various measures, such as antivirus software, firewalls, encryption, authentication, patch management, and device management1.
Among the four options, the use of multi-tenant laptops poses the greatest risk potential for workstation and endpoint security. Multi-tenant laptops are laptops that are shared by multiple users or organizations, such as in a cloud-based environment2. This means that the laptop’s resources, such as memory, CPU, storage, and network, are divided among different tenants, who may have different security policies, requirements, and access levels2. This can create several challenges and risks, such as:
Therefore, the use of multi-tenant laptops should trigger more investigation due to greater risk potential, and require more stringent and consistent security controls, such as:
References: 1: What is Desktop Virtualization? | IBM1 2: Multitenant organization scenario and Microsoft Entra capabilities2
An organization has experienced an unrecoverable data loss event after restoring a system. This is an example of:
A failure to conduct a Root Cause Analysis (RCA)
A failure to meet the Recovery Time Objective (RTO)
A failure to meet the Recovery Consistency Objective (RCO)
A failure to meet the Recovery Point Objective (RPO)
An unrecoverable data loss event after restoring a system is indicative of a failure to meet the Recovery Point Objective (RPO). The RPO represents the maximum tolerable period in which data might be lost due to an incident and is a critical component of an organization's disaster recovery and business continuity planning. If data restoration efforts are unsuccessful and lead to unrecoverable data loss, it means that the organization's data backup and recovery processes were insufficient to meet the defined RPO, leading to a loss of data beyond the acceptable threshold. This situation underscores the importance of implementing effective data backup and recovery strategies that align with the organization's RPO to minimize data loss and ensure business continuity in the event of a disruption.
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When evaluating remote access risk, which of the following is LEAST applicable to your analysis?
Logging of remote access authentication attempts
Limiting access by job role of business justification
Monitoring device activity usage volumes
Requiring application whitelisting
Application whitelisting is a security technique that allows only authorized applications to run on a device or network, preventing malware or unauthorized software from executing. While this can be a useful security measure, it is not directly related to remote access risk evaluation, which focuses on the security of the connection and the access rights of the remote users. The other options are more relevant to remote access risk evaluation, as they help to monitor, control, and audit the remote access activities and prevent unauthorized or malicious access. References:
For services with system-to-system access, which change management requirement
MOST effectively reduces the risk of business disruption to the outsourcer?
Approval of the change by the information security department
Documenting sufficient time for quality assurance testing
Communicating the change to customers prior ta deployment to enable external acceptance testing
Documenting and legging change approvals
For services with system-to-system access, ensuring sufficient time for quality assurance (QA) testing before implementing changes is crucial to reducing the risk of business disruption to the outsourcer. This requirement ensures that any modifications to the system are thoroughly vetted for potential issues that could impact the outsourcer's operations. QA testing allows for the identification and remediation of bugs, compatibility issues, and other potential problems that could lead to operational disruptions or security vulnerabilities. By allocating adequate time for QA testing, organizations can ensure that changes are fully functional and secure, thereby maintaining the integrity and availability of services provided to the outsourcer. This practice is aligned with industry standards for change management, which advocate for comprehensive testing and validation processes to ensure the reliability and stability of system changes.
References:
Which capability is LEAST likely to be included in the annual testing activities for Business Continuity or Disaster Recovery plans?
Plans to enable technology and business operations to be resumed at a back-up site
Process to validate that specific databases can be accessed by applications at the designated location
Ability for business personnel to perform their functions at an alternate work space location
Require participation by third party service providers in collaboration with industry exercises
Business Continuity or Disaster Recovery (BC/DR) plans are designed to ensure the continuity of critical business functions and processes in the event of a disruption or disaster. BC/DR plans should include annual testing activities to validate the effectiveness and readiness of the plans, as well as to identify and address any gaps or weaknesses. Testing activities should cover the three main areas of BC/DR: people, processes, and technology12.
The four options given in the question represent different types of testing activities that may be included in the BC/DR plans. However, option D is the least likely to be included, as it is not a mandatory or common practice for most organizations. While it is beneficial to involve third party service providers in the BC/DR testing, as they may play a vital role in the recovery process, it is not a requirement or a standard for most industries. Third party service providers may have their own BC/DR plans and testing schedules, which may not align with the organization’s plans and objectives. Moreover, requiring their participation in industry exercises may pose challenges in terms of coordination, confidentiality, and cost34.
Therefore, option D is the correct answer, as it is the least likely to be included in the annual testing activities for BC/DR plans. The other options are more likely to be included, as they are essential for ensuring the availability and functionality of the technology, processes, and personnel that support the critical business operations. These options are:
References:
Which policy requirement is typically NOT defined in an Asset Management program?
The Policy states requirements for the reuse of physical media (e.9., devices, servers, disk drives, etc.)
The Policy requires that employees and contractors return all company data and assets upon termination of their employment, contract or agreement
The Policy defines requirements for the inventory, identification, and disposal of equipment “and/or physical media
The Policy requires visitors (including other tenants and maintenance personnel) to sign-in and sign-out of the facility, and to be escorted at all times
An Asset Management program is a set of policies, procedures, and practices that aim to optimize the value, performance, and lifecycle of the organization’s assets, such as physical, financial, human, or information assets123. An Asset Management program typically defines policy requirements for the following aspects of asset management:
However, option D, a policy requirement that requires visitors (including other tenants and maintenance personnel) to sign-in and sign-out of the facility, and to be escorted at all times, is typically not defined in an Asset Management program. Rather, this requirement is more likely to be defined in a Physical Security program, which is a set of policies, procedures, and practices that aim to protect the organization’s premises, assets, and personnel from unauthorized access, damage, or harm . A Physical Security program typically defines policy requirements for the following aspects of physical security:
Therefore, option D is the correct answer, as it is the only one that does not reflect a policy requirement that is typically defined in an Asset Management program. References: The following resources support the verified answer and explanation:
TESTED 26 Dec 2024
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