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CCRN-Adult CCRN (Adult) - Direct Care Eligibility Pathway Questions and Answers

Questions 4

The underlying pathophysiology of disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) is best explained as

Options:

A.

depression of platelet aggregation.

B.

inactivation of tissue thromboplastin.

C.

depletion of clotting factors.

D.

fragmentation of erythrocytes.

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Questions 5

A ventilator-associated event (VAE) is best prevented by

Options:

A.

tracheal instillation of normal saline.

B.

changing ventilator tubing daily.

C.

minimizing tube feedings.

D.

subglottic suctioning.

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Questions 6

A patient with an acute anterior wall MI presents with an S3 gallop and the following values:

Which drug therapy would be most appropriate for this patient?

Options:

A.

vasodilators and positive inotropes

B.

vasopressors and beta-blockers

C.

vasodilators and diuretics

D.

vasopressors and calcium-channel blockers

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Questions 7

A terminally ill patient is deteriorating. The patient's family states, "We don't want him to suffer any more." The most appropriate response is

Options:

A.

"I have given him the medication that was ordered."

B.

"Do you feel he is suffering now?"

C.

"He probably isn't feeling anything right now."

D.

"I will make a referral to the chaplain."

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Questions 8

A patient who underwent bowel resection surgery due to small bowel rupture is tachycardic and hypotensive. A nurse calls the on-call surgical resident and reports the findings. No new orders are received. The nurse should continue to monitor the patient and

Options:

A.

notify the charge nurse during nightly rounds.

B.

inform the clinical manager in the morning.

C.

initiate the rapid response team.

D.

consult the nearest nursing colleague.

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Questions 9

A nurse is providing care to a patient diagnosed with abdominal compartment syndrome. The nurse should recognize the patient is most at risk for developing

Options:

A.

increased urine output.

B.

increased preload.

C.

increased peak inspiratory pressure.

D.

decreased intracranial pressure.

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Questions 10

The family member of a patient who is receiving mechanical ventilation is to be taught suctioning. When developing a teaching plan, the nurse should first

Options:

A.

obtain written information about the procedure.

B.

determine a schedule for demonstrating the technique.

C.

identify the areas in which the family member needs information and skills.

D.

encourage the family member to observe the procedure on other patients.

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Questions 11

Family members have been complaining about limited visiting hours. To facilitate a potential change in practice, a nurse should first

Options:

A.

schedule an interdisciplinary team meeting to discuss visiting hours.

B.

begin a literature search on family visitation practices.

C.

consult with medical staff to change visiting hours.

D.

draft a new policy regarding visitation practices for the unit.

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Questions 12

An unconscious patient in hepatic failure secondary to alcoholism becomes acutely hypoglycemic. Glucagon administration is contraindicated for this patient because glucagon

Options:

A.

interferes with lactulose (Cephulac) therapy.

B.

produces additional sedative effects.

C.

is ineffective when hepatocytes are damaged.

D.

causes rebound hyperglycemia.

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Questions 13

The intended effects of medications for a patient in acute CHF are to

Options:

A.

reduce CVP and increase SVR.

B.

reduce CVP and reduce SVR.

C.

increase CVP and reduce SVR.

D.

increase CVP and increase SVR.

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Questions 14

Which of the following assessment findings would be found in a patient with pulmonary hypertension?

Options:

A.

crackles in the bases bilaterally

B.

rhonchi in the apices bilaterally

C.

pink frothy sputum

D.

distended neck veins

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Questions 15

Which of the following diagnostic procedures best pinpoints the location, size, and origin of a cerebral aneurysm?

Options:

A.

MRI

B.

cerebral angiography

C.

positron emission tomography (PET) scanning

D.

CT scanning

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Questions 16

An older adult patient is admitted with acute exacerbation of congestive heart failure. An echocardiogram indicates that EF is unchanged at 50%. The patient is most likely experiencing

Options:

A.

heart failure with reduced EF.

B.

heart failure with preserved EF.

C.

left ventricular failure.

D.

advanced heart failure.

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Questions 17

In a patient with status asthmaticus, which of the following indicate a deteriorating condition?

Options:

A.

increased compliance and respiratory acidosis

B.

increased PaCO2 and decreased expiratory flow

C.

respiratory alkalosis and increased expiratory flow

D.

decreased PaCO2 and increased minute ventilation

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Questions 18

A nurse is caring for a patient with pulmonary fibrosis who is exhibiting shortness of breath, tachypnea, and feels a sense of impending doom. In order to relieve these symptoms, the nurse should anticipate an order for

Options:

A.

morphine.

B.

hydromorphone.

C.

lorazepam.

D.

diazepam.

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Questions 19

A patient is admitted with Gl bleeding. During the assessment, the nurse notes the patient to be tremulous, anxious, and startles every time he is touched by the nurse. Which of the following is the most pertinent part of the patient's history to obtain?

Options:

A.

last alcohol intake

B.

medication history

C.

time of last meal

D.

psychiatric history

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Questions 20

A patient who is confused and dyspneic is admitted with ABG values that reveal hypoxemia. Results from insertion of a pulmonary artery catheter are:

PAP 38/18 mm Hg

PAOP10 mm Hg

CI 3.5 L/min/m2

These values are most indicative of

Options:

A.

hypovolemia.

B.

hypervolemia.

C.

pulmonary dysfunction.

D.

left ventricular failure.

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Questions 21

A patient with unilateral facial droop and slurred speech has a history of hyperlipidemia and hypertension. The nurse should anticipate an order for a

Options:

A.

head MRI.

B.

triglyceride panel.

C.

head and neck CT scan.

D.

coagulation panel.

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Questions 22

A nurse is performing medication reconciliation during a patient's admission. To determine the patient's current understanding of the medication furosemide (Lasix), which of the following is the best statement by the nurse?

Options:

A.

"Can you explain to me what furosemide (Lasix) does for you?"

B.

"Do you take the furosemide (Lasix) for your hypertension?"

C.

"Which of your medications help to remove extra fluid?"

D.

"When is the best time of day to take furosemide (Lasix)?"

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Questions 23

To maintain adequate pain control in a post-surgical patient addicted to heroin, a nurse should plan to

Options:

A.

administer oral opioids only as needed.

B.

administer PCA opioids with on-demand dosing only.

C.

administer PCA with continuous and on-demand opioid delivery.

D.

avoid administering any intravenous pain medication.

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Questions 24

A patient with a C5 spinal cord injury calls the nurse every 15 minutes with requests for juice, water, and repositioning. Which of the following is the nurse's best response?

Options:

A.

"You need to be repositioned only every 2 hours."

B.

"You are safe. Nothing will happen to you."

C.

"I will check on you every 30 minutes."

D.

"I will get someone to sit with you."

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Questions 25

Treatment of cerebral vasospasm includes administration of

Options:

A.

lorazepam (Ativan).

B.

propranolol (Inderal).

C.

nimodipine (Nimotop).

D.

pentobarbital (Nembutal).

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Questions 26

A patient is intubated and receiving assist control mechanical ventilation and is on a norepinephrine drip following a head injury. Patient data are:

Which of the following interventions will improve cerebral perfusion?

Options:

A.

increasing the norepinephrine rate

B.

administering prescribed acetaminophen

C.

requesting an ABG

D.

suctioning the airway

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Questions 27

Which of the following serum laboratory results is most concerning to a nurse who is caring for a patient with a Stage Ill pressure ulcer on the coccyx?

Options:

A.

albumin 2.1 mg/dL

B.

hemoglobin 10.2 mg/dL

C.

WBC 6,000/mm3

D.

glucose 125 mg/dL

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Questions 28

A patient is admitted with anaphylactic shock secondary to a blood transfusion. The patient's spouse asks the nurse to explain how blood can cause a low blood pressure. The nurse responds that with anaphylactic shock the

Options:

A.

heart muscle weakens and is unable to pump effectively.

B.

peripheral blood vessels dilate, and this creates a maldistribution of volume.

C.

kidneys excrete large amounts of urine dropping the blood pressure.

D.

autonomic nervous system is disrupted dropping blood pressure.

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Questions 29

The spouse of a critically ill patient is indecisive, withdrawn, and tells the nurse, "I feel so helpless." Appropriate nursing interventions include

Options:

A.

offering solutions to problems identified by the spouse.

B.

encouraging other family members to make necessary decisions.

C.

providing reassurance that visiting is not always necessary.

D.

identifying and reinforcing the spouse's support systems.

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Questions 30

Patients in end-stage cardiomyopathy often exhibit which of the following symptoms of right-sided heart failure?

Options:

A.

hypotension and oliguria

B.

JVD and hepatomegaly

C.

hypertension and polyuria

D.

pulmonary edema and restlessness

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Questions 31

A patient is admitted for sepsis secondary to pneumonia. The patient has received 2000 mL of plasmalyte and their BP remains 80/50. What should the nurse anticipate next for the patient?

Options:

A.

dopamine

B.

norepinephrine

C.

1L of plasmalyte

D.

vasopressin

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Questions 32

In a patient with a chest tube, an air leak in the pleural space is indicated by which of the following conditions in the water-seal chamber?

Options:

A.

fluctuation increases

B.

bubbling increases

C.

fluctuation is absent

D.

bubbling stops

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Questions 33

The goal of PEEP therapy in acute lung injury (ALI) is to

Options:

A.

decrease PAP.

B.

decrease airway resistance.

C.

increase cardiac output.

D.

reduce physiologic shunting.

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Questions 34

When assessing a patient who has acute pancreatitis, which of the following findings require immediate notification to the provider?

Options:

A.

shortness of breath

B.

hypoactive bowel sounds

C.

hyperglycemia

D.

vomiting

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Questions 35

A patient is admitted with a traumatic brain injury. During assessment, a nurse notes increased urinary output from the catheter. Which of the following should the nurse suspect?

Options:

A.

syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH)

B.

central diabetes insipidus

C.

cerebral salt wasting

D.

nephrogenic diabetes insipidus

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Questions 36

Which of the following suggests acute peripheral arterial insufficiency?

Options:

A.

positive Homans' sign

B.

capillary refill time less than 2 sec

C.

weak equal bilateral pedal pulses

D.

sudden, severe pain at rest

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Questions 37

The nurse who is caring for a patient following an esophagectomy notes new subcutaneous emphysema in the upper chest and neck. The nurse should expect an order for

Options:

A.

chest tube insertion.

B.

a CT scan.

C.

IV antibiotics.

D.

gastric decompression.

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Questions 38

A patient's blood culture report notes the presence of vancomycin resistant enterococcus. The nurse should place the patient in which type of isolation?

Options:

A.

droplet

B.

airborne

C.

contact

D.

protective

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Questions 39

The family of a patient requests permission to administer traditional herbs to the patient. Which of the following should be the nurse's first action?

Options:

A.

Inform the family that herbal therapy is not appropriate in the hospital.

B.

Consult with the pharmacist on the effects of the specific herbs.

C.

Allow the patient to take the herbs because they are natural.

D.

Obtain an order for the herbs.

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Questions 40

In a patient with hypertensive crisis, neurologic changes are caused by

Options:

A.

excessive secretion of catecholamines.

B.

vasospasm of the cerebral arterioles.

C.

hypoxemia as a result of pulmonary interstitial edema.

D.

increased ICP as a result of loss of cerebral autoregulation.

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Questions 41

The most appropriate therapy for carboxyhemoglobinemia is

Options:

A.

100% O2 administration.

B.

inhaled corticosteroids.

C.

hyperventilation.

D.

aerosolized beta-agonists.

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Questions 42

A patient is 2 days post MI. The patient was stable until this morning, when severe chest discomfort developed. Assessment reveals:

BP70/palpable

HR122

RR38

PAOP28 mm Hg, with large V waves

CI1.6 L/min/m2

Cool, clammy skin

Inspiratory crackles throughout the lung field

Loud blowing holosystolic murmur at the apex

The patient's present clinical status is most likely a result of

Options:

A.

papillary muscle rupture.

B.

cardiac tamponade.

C.

acute aortic insufficiency.

D.

ventricular septal defect.

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Questions 43

A patient has gained 8 kg in the past week. Serum sodium is 115 mEq/L, CVP is 20 mm Hg, and serum osmolality is decreased. The patient has just experienced a generalized tonic-clonic seizure. In this situation, which of the following IV solutions should a nurse be prepared to administer?

Options:

A.

3% sodium chloride

B.

0.45% sodium chloride

C.

0.9% sodium chloride

D.

5% dextrose with 0.25% sodium chloride

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Questions 44

During the monthly code team review, it is noted that regulators have been consistently missing from the O2 tanks. Which of the following is a nurse's best action?

Options:

A.

Document on the daily flow sheets when the regulators are missing.

B.

Inform the nurse manager of the need for more regulators.

C.

Form a task force to try to find a solution.

D.

Report the missing regulators to the shift supervisor.

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Questions 45

A patient with cardiogenic shock for several days has been managed aggressively with vasopressor and inotrope therapies. Which of the following indicates organ dysfunction from hypoperfusion?

Options:

A.

decreased insulin requirements and abdominal pain

B.

elevated creatinine and fever

C.

abdominal pain and elevated creatinine

D.

fever and decreased insulin requirements

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CCRN |

Exam Code: CCRN-Adult
Exam Name: CCRN (Adult) - Direct Care Eligibility Pathway
Last Update: Sep 7, 2024
Questions: 150
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