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Advanced-CAMS-Audit Advanced CAMS-Audit Certification Exam Questions and Answers

Questions 4

Why is it crucial for the audit plan to consider the effectiveness of the AML risk assessment controls and risk mitigants?

Options:

A.

Audits need to approve the implementation of the controls and review testing outcomes.

B.

Improper identification and assessment of risk creates deficiencies resulting in an overall weakened AML compliance program.

C.

There is a regulatory requirement for the audit to update the AML risk assessments on a continuous or specified periodic basis.

D.

Strict CDD rules promote high ethical and professional standards in the financial industry.

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Questions 5

While reviewing a sample of trade financing documents in a financial institution, an auditor notes that there were instances of potential overvaluation and undervaluation of goods. The auditor intends to check if these were detected and escalated. Which is a reason for such overvaluation and undervaluation?

Options:

A.

To disguise dual-use goods

B.

To trade prohibited goods

C.

To move funds or value across national borders

D.

To defraud shipping companies

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Questions 6

What conclusion should the auditor make regarding AML training for outsourced AML providers?

Options:

A.

The approach outlined by the Dank is deficient, as the service providers are not pan of the Dank s AML training during its staff onboarding.

B.

The approach outlined by the Dank is appropriate as the Dank can rely on a professional service provider to deliver the AML training program for the Dank s staff.

C.

The approach outlined by the Dank is deficient, as it does not provide controls for the Dank to verify training delivered by outsourced providers to the bank's staff is appropriate.

D.

The approach outlined by the bank Is appropriate as it considers practical issues such as time zone differences and availability of both classroom and online sessions.

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Questions 7

Audits are designed to provide assurance that what key aspect of risk management framework is adequately designed and functioning effectively?

Options:

A.

Procedures

B.

Controls

C.

Reporting

D.

Risks

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Questions 8

When assessing the KYC process which should an auditor observe from the customer risk assessment? (Select Two)

Options:

A.

Self-declaration or Beneficial ownership should not be accepted as it is not adequate.

B.

Overseas shareholders not involved in the customer's dally operations are not beneficial owners.

C.

The purpose and intended nature of the business relationship were not reviewed m the assessment.

D.

The ultimate beneficial owners of the customer need to be Identified and verified.

E.

If this was a face-to-face customer, the overall customer risk rating should be changed to low.

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Questions 9

Which recommendation should the audit team provide to address transaction monitoring (TM) issues?

Options:

A.

Switch off those detection scenarios that are producing too many false positives.

B.

Apply the same thresholds across all client types to ensure alignment of risk coverage.

C.

Perform a coverage assessment of the current suite of TM detection scenarios against the bank's money laundering and terrorist financing risks

D.

Provide training for first-line staff on how to review and disposition TM alerts.

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Questions 10

Which best explains why the auditor rates the audit finding on sanction screening severity high?

Options:

A.

The efficiency of the sanction screening tool is not properly tuned due to the wrong sanctions lists.

B.

The finding is on a different audit topic than the KYC related findings.

C.

The tool might miss potential sanction violations given the long intervals before the sanctions lists are updated.

D.

The organization might have reported a sanction breach that is not a current sanction violation.

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Questions 11

Which requirement of a financial institution's compliance program should an auditor review first to understand key roles and responsibilities?

Options:

A.

Designation of an individual or individuals responsible for coordinating and monitoring day-to-day compliance

B.

List of high-risk customers subject to enhanced due diligence and the measures taken to mitigate the risks

C.

Names of politically exposed persons that are subject to ongoing monitoring

D.

List of suspicious transactions reported to the regulator

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Questions 12

A financial institution is auditing its correspondent banking relationships and their respective sanctions compliance programs. Which condition will merit a higher sample size assuming the correspondent banks have a moderate level of risk mitigation?

Options:

A.

A fluctuating customer base in an international environment

B.

A well-known customer base m a localized environment

C.

A customer base changing due to a merger in the domestic market

D.

A stable customer base in an international environment

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Questions 13

Which task should an auditor complete first when preparing to audit the client risk scoring methodology?

Options:

A.

Query the completeness of the customer data to be provided.

B.

Discuss the client risk scoring process with the head of AML.

C.

Review the financial institution's AML risk assessment to understand the institution's client base.

D.

Review a list of high-risk customers provided by compliance.

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Questions 14

A financial institution utilizes an automated daily validation report to validate the accuracy of the data flowing into its monitoring software. An auditor is responsible for testing the data used to create the report. This is an example of testing which type of effectiveness?

Options:

A.

Program

B.

Software

C.

Design

D.

Operating

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Questions 15

During the interview, the local director informs the audit manager that no internal or regulatory audits have occurred since the local director's appointment The local director relies on a locally-approved independent external review of Company A performed 12 months ago by a local firm How should the audit manager respond?

Options:

A.

Validate the accuracy of content of the independent external review report by recommending an audit and assess if the findings of both the independent review and audit are similar.

B.

Review the independent external review report to determine the extent to which reliance can be placed on it and identify matters requiring further review by internal audit.

C.

Rely upon the independent external review report as the base to formulate conclusions of the current onsite visit by internal audit.

D.

Advise the group board that the group should set aside the external review reports as the use of the third party independent reviewer was not authorized at group board level.

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Questions 16

When assessing the effectiveness of a transaction monitoring system, which indicators require active monitoring by the auditor or compliance'? (Select Two.)

Options:

A.

Data quality and mapping

B.

Scenario altering techniques

C.

Robustness of feedback relating to submitted suspicious activity reports

D.

False positive ratio

E.

Complexity of monitoring scenarios

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Questions 17

An organization creates a document for its audit committee listing the outstanding audit findings. The list has an executive management owner assigned to each finding, due dates for reporting management's responses and space for management to identity the actions to be taken. Which is a primary purpose of this document?

Options:

A.

Providing audit documentation of management responses

B.

Tracking completion of proposed recommendations

C.

Documenting audit team validation testing

D.

Testing resiliency of proposed recommendations

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Questions 18

When reviewing changes to the organizational structure of an AML department, which factor should an auditor assess?

Options:

A.

Interaction with internal audit

B.

Staffing levels on the AML team

C.

Changes in board members

D.

Business reporting lines

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Questions 19

Which is a true statement about the computer-assisted audit tool (CAAT)?

Options:

A.

Both CAAT and traditional methods of auditing allow auditors to build conclusions based upon a limited sample of a population.

B.

KYC data that have been incorporated into the warehouse could still be changed if need be from using CAAT.

C.

Auditors using CAAT could have all customer addresses from the past 10 years while auditors using traditional methods of auditing could only have a sample of these customer addresses.

D.

CAAT cannot be customized to scrutinize huge volumes of data and produce specific procedures that could replace the requirement for the auditor's own procedures.

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Questions 20

Findings from a financial institution's (Fl's) regulatory examination suggest that several unidentified risks pose a serious threat. The Fl identifies the risks and implements a set of controls to mitigate those risks. Which type of risk considers the controls' effectiveness?

Options:

A.

Aggregate

B.

Consolidated

C.

Inherent

D.

Residual

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Questions 21

Which statements demonstrate an effective use of risk appetite in an organization? (Select Two.)

Options:

A.

Risk appetite statements should remain stable and consistent, even in changing business conditions.

B.

Determining risk appetite should include a discussion about an organization becoming overly risk-averse.

C.

Risk appetite statements do not need specific indicators to alert management when the level of acceptable risk is exceeded.

D.

When discussing and managing risk, "risk appetite" and "risk tolerance" can be used interchangeably.

E.

Analyzing risk appetite statements is important to reaching a meaningful articulation of risk appetite.

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Questions 22

During the auditing process the auditor finds that the entity never updates the customers risk assessment. Which remediation actions should the auditor suggest? (Select Two.)

Options:

A.

Compliance regularly updates the lists of high- and medium-risk countries to ensure updated customer risk profiles.

B.

Audit designates an audit manager to review customer profiles annually.

C.

Delete non-active customer profiles to reduce the workload of ongoing surveillance.

D.

Management engages an independent third party to update all the customer risk profiles.

E.

The business updates the customer risk profiles periodically in accordance with the customer risk level.

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Questions 23

in addition to this investigation report, what Information should the auditor expect to find in the investigative file? (Select Two.)

Options:

A.

Board approval for the suspicious activity report filing by the compliance department.

B.

Independent review by the compliance officer's line manager.

C.

Adverse news search results against the customers and its controlling persons.

D.

Policies and procedures relating to AML investigations and suspicious activity report filing.

E.

Historical transaction data of the customer s account.

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Questions 24

What should an auditor verify when auditing areas with previously identified AMI deficiencies?

Options:

A.

Management took appropriate and timely action to address any violations and other deficiencies.

B.

Senior management agreed that the findings were legitimate.

C.

Management discussed an action plan to address any violations and other deficiencies.

D.

The business attested to remediating the control gaps.

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Questions 25

Which KYC-related finding poses the most risk to the organization?

Options:

A.

KYC requirements being considered a low priority not designed into business processes and implemented after product launch

B.

Sanctions fists that are updated on a periodic basis following an annual risk assessment

C.

KYC processes not being integrated into the business and associated application systems

D.

Backlogs and delays in maintaining client files in accordance with the organization’s policy

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Questions 26

An audit finding can be closed when:

Options:

A.

all necessary evidence is collected and analyzed.

B.

the underlying risk is reassessed and mitigated.

C.

the final audit report is ready for delivery.

D.

the follow-up actions are completed.

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Questions 27

Which should be incorporated into an AML compliance policy? (Select Three.)

Options:

A.

Documentation record keeping

B.

Suspicious activity reporting

C.

Cryptocurrency threat assessment

D.

Financial results reporting

E.

Mandatory training requirements

F.

Credit risk assessment

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Exam Code: Advanced-CAMS-Audit
Exam Name: Advanced CAMS-Audit Certification Exam
Last Update: Dec 26, 2024
Questions: 90
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