SY0-701 CompTIA Security+ Exam 2024 Questions and Answers

The first step in responding to a cybersecurity incident, particularly when malware is detected, is to contain the impacted hosts. This action prevents the spread of malware to other parts of the network, limiting the potential damage while further investigation and remediation actions are planned.

References = CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 study materials, particularly on incident response procedures and the importance of containment in managing security incidents​​.

The final step in the incident response process is "Lessons learned." This step involves reviewing and analyzing the incident to understand what happened, how it was handled, and what could be improved. The goal is to improve future response efforts and prevent similar incidents from occurring. It's essential for refining the incident response plan and enhancing overall security posture.

References = CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 study materials, particularly in the domain of incident response and recovery​​.

Infrastructure as code (IaC) is a method of using code and automation to manage and provision cloud resources, such as servers, networks, storage, and applications. IaC allows for easy deployment, scalability, consistency, and repeatability of cloud environments. IaC is also a key component of DevSecOps, which integrates security into the development and operations processes. References: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide: Exam SY0-701, 9th Edition, Chapter 6: Cloud and Virtualization Concepts, page 294.

A Cloud Access Security Broker (CASB) solution is the most suitable option for securing an organization that has adopted a cloud-first strategy and does not have an on-premises IT infrastructure. CASBs provide visibility and control over shadow IT services, enforce security policies, and protect data across cloud services.

References = CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 study materials, particularly in the domain of cloud security and managing risks associated with shadow IT​​.

For a company located in an area prone to hurricanes and needing to immediately continue operations, the best type of site is a hot site. A hot site is a fully operational offsite data center that is equipped with hardware, software, and network connectivity and is ready to take over operations with minimal downtime.

Hot site: Fully operational and can take over business operations almost immediately after a disaster.

Cold site: A basic site with infrastructure in place but without hardware or data, requiring significant time to become operational.

Tertiary site: Not a standard term in disaster recovery; it usually refers to an additional backup location but lacks the specifics of readiness.

Warm site: Equipped with hardware and connectivity but requires some time and effort to become fully operational, not as immediate as a hot site.

Key escrow is a method of storing encryption keys in a secure location, such as a trusted third party or a hardware security module (HSM). Key escrow is important for FDE because it allows the recovery of encrypted data in case of lost or forgotten passwords, device theft, or hardware failure. Key escrow also enables authorized access to encrypted data for legal or forensic purposes.

TPM presence is a feature of some laptops that have a dedicated chip for storing encryption keys and other security information. TPM presence is important for FDE because it enhances the security and performance of encryption by generating and protecting the keys within the chip, rather than relying on software or external devices. TPM presence also enables features such as secure boot, remote attestation, and device authentication. 

A jump server is a device or virtual machine that acts as an intermediary between a user’s workstation and a remote network segment. A jump server can be used to securely access servers or devices that are not directly reachable from the user’s workstation, such as database servers. A jump server can also provide audit logs and access control for the remote connections. A jump server is also known as a jump box or a jump host12.

RADIUS is a protocol for authentication, authorization, and accounting of network access. RADIUS is not a device or a method to access remote servers, but rather a way to verify the identity and permissions of users or devices that request network access34.

HSM is an acronym for Hardware Security Module, which is a physical device that provides secure storage and generation of cryptographic keys. HSMs are used to protect sensitive data and applications, such as digital signatures, encryption, and authentication. HSMs are not used to access remote servers, but rather to enhance the security of the data and applications that reside on them5 .

A load balancer is a device or software that distributes network traffic across multiple servers or devices, based on criteria such as availability, performance, or capacity. A load balancer can improve the scalability, reliability, and efficiency of network services, such as web servers, application servers, or database servers. A load balancer is not used to access remote servers, but rather to optimize the delivery of the services that run on them . References =

How to access a remote server using a jump host

Jump server

RADIUS

Remote Authentication Dial-In User Service (RADIUS)

Hardware Security Module (HSM)

[What is an HSM?]

[Load balancing (computing)]

[What is Load Balancing?]

A Secure Web Gateway (SWG) protects users by filtering unwanted software/malware from user-initiated web traffic and enforcing corporate and regulatory policy compliance. This technology allows the company to secure remote users' data and web traffic without relying on a VPN, making it ideal for organizations supporting remote work.

References = CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 study materials, particularly in the domain of network security and remote access technologies​​.

Jailbreaking is the process of removing restrictions imposed by the manufacturer on a smartphone, allowing the user to install unauthorized software and features not available through official app stores. This action typically voids the warranty and can introduce security risks by bypassing built-in protections.

SOU (Statement of Understanding) is not related to modifying devices.

Cross-site scripting is a web-based attack technique, unrelated to smartphone software.

Side loading refers to installing apps from unofficial sources but without necessarily removing built-in restrictions like jailbreaking does​​.

Unidentified removable devices, such as USB drives, are a common threat vector for insider threat actors attempting data exfiltration. Insiders can easily use these devices to transfer sensitive data out of the organization undetected, making it one of the most commonly utilized methods for data theft.

Default network device credentials are a security vulnerability but not typically used for data exfiltration.

Spear phishing emails are used for external attacks, not insider data exfiltration.

Impersonation through typosquatting is typically used by external actors for phishing or fraud​​.

Multi-Factor Authentication (MFA) and patch management are both examples of preventative and technical controls. MFA prevents unauthorized access by requiring multiple forms of verification, and patch management ensures that systems are protected against vulnerabilities by applying updates. Both of these controls are implemented using technical methods, and they work to prevent security incidents before they occur.

References:

CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Course Content: Domain 1: General Security Concepts, and Domain 4: Identity and Access Management, which cover the implementation of preventative and technical controls​​.

Secure Shell (SSH) is a protocol used for secure command-line access to remote systems, while Secure File Transfer Protocol (SFTP) is an extension of SSH used specifically for securely transferring files. Both SSH and SFTP ensure that data is encrypted during transmission, protecting it from interception or tampering.

References =

CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Course Content: Domain 03 Security Architecture​.

CompTIA Security+ SY0-601 Study Guide: Chapter on Secure Protocols and Encryption​.

PCI DSS is the Payment Card Industry Data Security Standard, which is a set of security requirements for organizations that store, process, or transmit cardholder data. PCI DSS aims to protect the confidentiality, integrity, and availability of cardholder data and prevent fraud, identity theft, and data breaches. PCI DSS is enforced by the payment card brands, such as Visa, Mastercard, American Express, Discover, and JCB, and applies to all entities involved in the payment card ecosystem, such as merchants, acquirers, issuers, processors, service providers, and payment applications.

If a large bank fails an internal PCI DSS compliance assessment, the most likely outcome is that the bank will face fines from the payment card brands. An internal PCI DSS compliance assessment is a self-assessment that the bank performs to evaluate its own compliance with the PCI DSS requirements. The bank must submit the results of the internal assessment to the payment card brands or their designated agents, such as acquirers or qualified security assessors (QSAs). If the internal assessment reveals that the bank is not compliant with the PCI DSS requirements, the payment card brands may impose fines on the bank as a penalty for violating the PCI DSS contract. The amount and frequency of the fines may vary depending on the severity and duration of the non-compliance, the number and type of cardholder data compromised, and the level of cooperation and remediation from the bank. The fines can range from thousands to millions of dollars per month, and can increase over time if the non-compliance is not resolved.

The other options are not correct because they are not the most likely outcomes if a large bank fails an internal PCI DSS compliance assessment. B. Audit findings. Audit findings are the results of an external PCI DSS compliance assessment that is performed by a QSA or an approved scanning vendor (ASV). An external assessment is required for certain entities that handle a large volume of cardholder data or have a history of non-compliance. An external assessment may also be triggered by a security incident or a request from the payment card brands. Audit findings may reveal the gaps and weaknesses in the bank’s security controls and recommend corrective actions to achieve compliance. However, audit findings are not the outcome of an internal assessment, which is performed by the bank itself. C. Sanctions. Sanctions are the measures that the payment card brands may take against the bank if the bank fails to pay the fines or comply with the PCI DSS requirements. Sanctions may include increasing the fines, suspending or terminating the bank’s ability to accept or process payment cards, or revoking the bank’s PCI DSS certification. Sanctions are not the immediate outcome of an internal assessment, but rather the possible consequence of prolonged or repeated non-compliance. D. Reputation damage. Reputation damage is the loss of trust and credibility that the bank may suffer from its customers, partners, regulators, and the public if the bank fails an internal PCI DSS compliance assessment. Reputation damage may affect the bank’s brand image, customer loyalty, market share, and profitability. Reputation damage is not a direct outcome of an internal assessment, but rather a potential risk that the bank may face if the non-compliance is exposed or exploited by malicious actors. References = CompTIA Security+ Study Guide (SY0-701), Chapter 8: Governance, Risk, and Compliance, page 388. Professor Messer’s CompTIA SY0-701 Security+ Training Course, Section 8.2: Compliance and Controls, video: PCI DSS (5:12). PCI Security Standards Council, PCI DSS Quick Reference Guide, page 4. PCI Security Standards Council, PCI DSS FAQs, question 8. PCI Security Standards Council, PCI DSS FAQs, question 9. [PCI Security Standards Council], PCI DSS FAQs, question 10. [PCI Security Standards Council], PCI DSS FAQs, question 11. [PCI Security Standards Council], PCI DSS FAQs, question 12. [PCI Security Standards Council], PCI DSS FAQs, question 13. [PCI Security Standards Council], PCI DSS FAQs, question 14. [PCI Security Standards Council], PCI DSS FAQs, question 15. [PCI Security Standards Council], PCI DSS FAQs, question 16. [PCI Security Standards Council], PCI DSS FAQs, question 17. [PCI Security Standards Council], PCI DSS FAQs, question 18. [PCI Security Standards Council], PCI DSS FAQs, question 19. [PCI Security Standards Council], PCI DSS FAQs, question 20. [PCI Security Standards Council], PCI DSS FAQs, question 21. [PCI Security Standards Council], PCI DSS FAQs, question 22. [PCI Security Standards Council], PCI DSS FAQs, question 23. [PCI Security Standards Council], PCI DSS FAQs, question 24. [PCI Security Standards Council], PCI DSS FAQs, question 25. [PCI Security Standards Council], PCI DSS FAQs, question 26. [PCI Security Standards Council], PCI DSS FAQs, question 27. [PCI Security Standards Council], PCI DSS FAQs, question 28. [PCI Security Standards Council], PCI DSS FAQs, question 29. [PCI Security Standards Council], PCI DSS FAQs, question 30. [PCI Security Standards Council]

When a critical legacy server is segmented into a private network, the security control being used is compensating. Compensating controls are alternative measures put in place to satisfy a security requirement when the primary control is not feasible or practical. In this case, segmenting the legacy server into a private network serves as a compensating control to protect it from potential vulnerabilities that cannot be mitigated directly.

Compensating: Provides an alternative method to achieve the desired security outcome when the primary control is not possible.

Deterrent: Aims to discourage potential attackers but does not directly address segmentation.

Corrective: Used to correct or mitigate the impact of an incident after it has occurred.

Preventive: Aims to prevent security incidents but is not specific to the context of segmentation.

Virtual Desktop Infrastructure (VDI) allows a company to host desktop environments on a centralized server. Offshore teams can access these virtual desktops remotely, ensuring that sensitive data stays within the company’s infrastructure without the need to provide physical devices to the team. This solution is ideal for maintaining data security while enabling remote work, as all data processing occurs on the company's secure servers.

References =

CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Course Content: VDI is discussed as a method for securely managing remote access to company resources without compromising data security​​.

To prevent an accounting clerk from sending money to an attacker's bank account due to fraudulent instructions, the most effective measure would be updating the processes for sending wire transfers. This can include implementing verification steps, such as requiring multiple approvals for changes in payment instructions and directly confirming new account details with trusted sources.

Updating processes for sending wire transfers: Involves adding verification and approval steps to prevent fraudulent transfers.

Standardizing security incident reporting: Important for handling incidents but not specifically focused on preventing fraudulent wire transfers.

Executing regular phishing campaigns: Helps raise awareness but may not directly address the process vulnerability.

Implementing insider threat detection measures: Useful for detecting malicious activities but does not directly prevent fraudulent transfer instructions.

Compensating controls are alternative security measures that are implemented when the primary controls are not feasible, cost-effective, or sufficient to mitigate the risk. In this case, the organization used compensating controls to protect the legacy system from potential attacks by disabling unneeded services and placing a firewall in front of it. This reduced the attack surface and the likelihood of exploitation.

References:

Official CompTIA Security+ Study Guide (SY0-701), page 29

Security Controls - CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 - 1.1 1

 A risk register is a document that records and tracks the risks associated with a project, system, or organization. A risk register typically includes information such as the risk description, the risk owner, the risk probability, the risk impact, the risk level, the risk response strategy, and the risk status. A risk register can help identify, assess, prioritize, monitor, and control risks, as well as communicate them to relevant stakeholders. A risk register can also help document the risk tolerance and thresholds of an organization, which are the acceptable levels of risk exposure and the criteria for escalating or mitigating risks. References = CompTIA Security+ Certification Exam Objectives, Domain 5.1: Explain the importance of policies, plans, and procedures related to organizational security. CompTIA Security+ Study Guide (SY0-701), Chapter 5: Governance, Risk, and Compliance, page 211. CompTIA Security+ Certification Guide, Chapter 2: Risk Management, page 33. CompTIA Security+ Certification Exam SY0-701 Practice Test 1, Question 4.

When a legacy device is no longer receiving updates or patches, it is considered to be at the end of life (EOL). This means the manufacturer has ceased support for the device, and it will no longer receive updates, security patches, or technical assistance. EOL devices pose security risks and are often decommissioned or replaced.

End of support may seem similar but typically refers to the cessation of technical support, whereas EOL means the device is fully retired.

End of business and End of testing do not apply in this context​​.

The company should request a certification from the vendor that confirms the storage array has been disposed of securely and in compliance with the company’s policies and standards. A certification provides evidence that the vendor has followed the proper procedures and methods to destroy the classified data and prevent unauthorized access or recovery. A certification may also include details such as the date, time, location, and method of disposal, as well as the names and signatures of the personnel involved. References: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide: Exam SY0-701, 9th Edition, Chapter 3, page 1441

Risk appetite refers to the level of risk that an organization is willing to accept in order to achieve its objectives. In this scenario, the security engineer is concerned that the timeframe for implementing a new application does not allow for sufficient cybersecurity due diligence. This reflects a situation where the organization’s risk appetite might be too high if it proceeds without the necessary security checks.

References = CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 study materials, particularly in the domain of risk management and understanding organizational risk appetite​​.

Cyber insurance is a type of insurance that covers the financial losses and liabilities that result from cyberattacks, such as data breaches, ransomware, denial-of-service, phishing, or malware. Cyber insurance can help a company recover from the costs of restoring data, repairing systems, paying ransoms, compensating customers, or facing legal actions. Cyber insurance is one of the possible strategies that a company can use to address the items listed on the risk register. A risk register is a document that records the identified risks, their probability, impact, and mitigation strategies for a project or an organization. The four common risk mitigation strategies are:

Accept: The company acknowledges the risk and decides to accept the consequences without taking any action to reduce or eliminate the risk. This strategy is usually chosen when the risk is low or the cost of mitigation is too high.

Transfer: The company transfers the risk to a third party, such as an insurance company, a vendor, or a partner. This strategy is usually chosen when the risk is high or the company lacks the resources or expertise to handle the risk.

Mitigate: The company implements controls or measures to reduce the likelihood or impact of the risk. This strategy is usually chosen when the risk is moderate or the cost of mitigation is reasonable.

Avoid: The company eliminates the risk by changing the scope, plan, or design of the project or the organization. This strategy is usually chosen when the risk is unacceptable or the cost of mitigation is too high.

By purchasing cyber insurance, the company is transferring the risk to the insurance company, which will cover the financial losses and liabilities in case of a cyberattack. Therefore, the correct answer is B. Transfer. References = CompTIA Security+ Study Guide (SY0-701), Chapter 8: Governance, Risk, and Compliance, page 377. Professor Messer’s CompTIA SY0-701 Security+ Training Course, Section 8.1: Risk Management, video: Risk Mitigation Strategies (5:37).

A honeypot is most likely to be deployed to obtain and analyze attacker activity and techniques. A honeypot is a decoy system set up to attract attackers, providing an opportunity to study their methods and behaviors in a controlled environment without risking actual systems.

Honeypot: A decoy system designed to lure attackers, allowing administrators to observe and analyze attack patterns and techniques.

Firewall: Primarily used to block unauthorized access to networks, not for observing attacker behavior.

IDS (Intrusion Detection System): Detects and alerts on malicious activity but does not specifically engage attackers to observe their behavior.

Layer 3 switch: Used for routing traffic within networks, not for analyzing attacker techniques.

A statement of work (SOW) is a document that defines the scope, objectives, deliverables, timeline, and costs of a project or service. It typically includes an estimate of the number of hours required to complete the engagement, as well as the roles and responsibilities of the parties involved. A SOW is often used for penetration testing projects to ensure that both the client and the vendor have a clear and mutual understanding of what is expected and how the work will be performed. A business partnership agreement (BPA), a service level agreement (SLA), and a non-disclosure agreement (NDA) are different types of contracts that may be related to a penetration testing project, but they do not include an estimate of the number of hours required to complete the engagement. References: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide: Exam SY0-701, 9th Edition, page 492; What to Look For in a Penetration Testing Statement of Work?

A false positive occurs when a vulnerability scan identifies a vulnerability that is not actually present on the systems that were scanned. This means that the scan has incorrectly flagged a system as vulnerable.

False positive: Incorrectly identifies a vulnerability that does not exist on the scanned systems.

False negative: Fails to identify an existing vulnerability on the system.

True positive: Correctly identifies an existing vulnerability.

True negative: Correctly identifies that there is no vulnerability.

Estimating the recovery time of systems is a task typically included in the Business Impact Analysis (BIA) process. BIA involves identifying the critical functions of a business and determining the impact of a disruption. This includes estimating how long it will take to recover systems and resume normal operations.

Estimating the recovery time of systems: A key component of BIA, which helps in understanding the time needed to restore systems and services after a disruption.

Identifying the communication strategy: Typically part of the incident response plan, not BIA.

Evaluating the risk management plan: Part of risk management, not specifically BIA.

Establishing the backup and recovery procedures: Important for disaster recovery, not directly part of BIA.

Developing the incident response plan: Focuses on responding to security incidents, not on the impact analysis.

To prevent the issuance of an MFA bypass code to an attacker posing as an employee, implementing identity proofing would be most effective. Identity proofing involves verifying the identity of individuals before granting access or providing sensitive information.

Identity proofing: Ensures that the person requesting the MFA bypass is who they claim to be, thereby preventing social engineering attacks where attackers pose as legitimate employees.

Hardware token MFA: Provides an additional factor for authentication but does not address verifying the requester's identity.

Biometrics: Offers strong authentication based on physical characteristics but is not related to the process of issuing MFA bypass codes.

Least privilege: Limits access rights for users to the bare minimum necessary to perform their work but does not prevent social engineering attacks targeting the service desk.

In a cloud environment, high availability is typically ensured through the use of a load balancer. A load balancer distributes network or application traffic across multiple servers, ensuring that no single server becomes overwhelmed and that services remain available even if one or more servers fail. This setup enhances the reliability and availability of applications.

Load balancer: Ensures high availability by distributing traffic across multiple servers or instances, preventing overload and ensuring continuous availability.

Access broker: Typically refers to a service that facilitates secure access to resources, not directly related to high availability.

Cloud HSM (Hardware Security Module): Provides secure key management in the cloud but does not specifically ensure high availability.

WAF (Web Application Firewall): Protects web applications by filtering and monitoring HTTP traffic but is not primarily focused on ensuring high availability.

Active reconnaissance is a type of reconnaissance that involves sending packets or requests to a target and analyzing the responses. Active reconnaissance can reveal information such as open ports, services, operating systems, and vulnerabilities. However, active reconnaissance is also more likely to be detected by the target or its security devices, such as firewalls or intrusion detection systems. Port and service scans are examples of active reconnaissance techniques, as they involve probing the target for specific information. References = CompTIA Security+ Certification Exam Objectives, Domain 1.1: Given a scenario, conduct reconnaissance using appropriate techniques and tools. CompTIA Security+ Study Guide (SY0-701), Chapter 2: Reconnaissance and Intelligence Gathering, page 47. CompTIA Security+ Certification Exam SY0-701 Practice Test 1, Question 1.

A Virtual Private Network (VPN) is the best solution to allow remote employees secure access to company resources without interception concerns. A VPN establishes an encrypted tunnel over the internet, ensuring that data transferred between remote employees and the company is secure from eavesdropping.

Proxy server helps with web content filtering and anonymization but does not provide encrypted access.

NGFW (Next-Generation Firewall) enhances security but is not the primary tool for enabling remote access.

Security zone is a network segmentation technique but does not provide remote access capabilities​​​.

 A honey pot is a system or a network that is designed to mimic a real production server and attract potential attackers. A honey pot can be used to identify the attacker’s methods, techniques, and objectives without affecting the actual production servers. A honey pot can also divert the attacker’s attention from the real targets and waste their time and resources12.

The other options are not effective ways to identify potential attacker activities without affecting production servers:

Video surveillance: This is a physical security technique that uses cameras and monitors to record and observe the activities in a certain area. Video surveillance can help to deter, detect, and investigate physical intrusions, but it does not directly identify the attacker’s activities on the network or the servers3.

Zero Trust: This is a security strategy that assumes that no user, device, or network is trustworthy by default and requires strict verification and validation for every request and transaction. Zero Trust can help to improve the security posture and reduce the attack surface of an organization, but it does not directly identify the attacker’s activities on the network or the servers4.

Geofencing: This is a security technique that uses geographic location as a criterion to restrict or allow access to data or resources. Geofencing can help to protect the data sovereignty and compliance of an organization, but it does not directly identify the attacker’s activities on the network or the servers5.

References = 1: CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Certification Study Guide, page 542: Honeypots and Deception – SY0-601 CompTIA Security+ : 2.1, video by Professor Messer3: CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Certification Study Guide, page 974: CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Certification Study Guide, page 985: CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Certification Study Guide, page 99.

A service level agreement (SLA) is a type of agreement that defines the expectations and responsibilities between a service provider and a customer. It usually includes the quality, availability, and performance metrics of the service, as well as the time frame in which the provider needs to respond to service requests, incidents, or complaints. An SLA can help ensure that the customer receives the desired level of service and that the provider is accountable for meeting the agreed-upon standards.

References:

Security+ (Plus) Certification | CompTIA IT Certifications, under “About the exam”, bullet point 3: “Operate with an awareness of applicable regulations and policies, including principles of governance, risk, and compliance.”

CompTIA Security+ Certification Kit: Exam SY0-701, 7th Edition, Chapter 1, page 14: “Service Level Agreements (SLAs) are contracts between a service provider and a customer that specify the level of service expected from the service provider.”

 Root cause analysis is a process of identifying and resolving the underlying factors that led to an incident. By conducting root cause analysis as part of incident response, security professionals can learn from the incident and implement corrective actions to prevent future incidents of the same nature. For example, if the root cause of a data breach was a weak password policy, the security team can enforce a stronger password policy and educate users on the importance of password security. Root cause analysis can also help to improve security processes, policies, and procedures, and to enhance security awareness and culture within the organization. Root cause analysis is not meant to gather loCs (indicators of compromise) for the investigation, as this is a task performed during the identification and analysis phases of incident response. Root cause analysis is also not meant to discover which systems have been affected or to eradicate any trace of malware on the network, as these are tasks performed during the containment and eradication phases of incident response. References = CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Certification Study Guide, page 424-425; Professor Messer’s CompTIA SY0-701 Security+ Training Course, video 5.1 - Incident Response, 9:55 - 11:18.

A content filter is a device or software that blocks or allows access to web content based on predefined rules or categories. In this case, the new retail website is mistakenly categorized as gambling by the content filter, which prevents users from accessing it. To resolve this issue, the content filter’s categorization needs to be updated to reflect the correct category of the website, such as shopping or retail. This will allow the content filter to allow access to the website instead of blocking it.

References: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide: Exam SY0-701, 9th Edition, Chapter 3: Technologies and Tools, page 1221. CompTIA Security+ Certification Kit: Exam SY0-701, 7th Edition, Chapter 3: Technologies and Tools, page 1222.

Job rotation is a security control that involves regularly moving employees to different roles within an organization. This practice helps prevent incidents where a single employee has too much control or knowledge about a specific job function, reducing the risk of disruption when an employee leaves. It also helps in identifying any hidden issues or undocumented processes that could cause problems after an employee's departure.

References:

CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Course Content: Domain 5: Security Program Management and Oversight, which includes job rotation as a method to ensure business continuity and reduce risks​​.

 A cold site is a type of backup data center that has the necessary infrastructure to support IT operations, but does not have any pre-configured hardware or software. A cold site is the cheapest option among the backup data center types, but it also has the longest recovery time objective (RTO) and recovery point objective (RPO) values. A cold site is suitable for scenarios where the cost-benefit is the primary requirement and the RTO and RPO values are not very stringent. A cold site can take up to two days or more to restore the normal operations after a disaster. References = CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Certification Study Guide, page 387; Backup Types – SY0-601 CompTIA Security+ : 2.5, video at 4:50.

Jailbreaking is the process of removing the restrictions imposed by the manufacturer or carrier on a mobile device, such as an iPhone or iPad. Jailbreaking allows users to install unauthorized applications, modify system settings, and access root privileges. However, jailbreaking also exposes the device to potential security risks, such as malware, spyware, unauthorized access, data loss, and voided warranty. Therefore, an organization may prohibit employees from jailbreaking their mobile devices to prevent these vulnerabilities and protect the corporate data and network. References: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide: Exam SY0-701, 9th Edition, Chapter 10: Mobile Device Security, page 507 2

A red team is a group of security professionals who perform offensive security assessments covering penetration testing and social engineering. A red team simulates real-world attacks and exploits the vulnerabilities of a target organization, system, or network. A red team aims to test the effectiveness of the security controls, policies, and procedures of the target, as well as the awareness and response of the staff and the blue team. A red team can be hired as an external consultant or formed internally within the organization. References = CompTIA Security+ Study Guide with over 500 Practice Test Questions: Exam SY0-701, 9th Edition, Chapter 1, page 18. CompTIA Security+ (SY0-701) Certification Exam Objectives, Domain 1.8, page 4. Security Teams – SY0-601 CompTIA Security+ : 1.8

A web filter is a device or software that can monitor, block, or allow web traffic based on predefined rules or policies. One of the common methods of web filtering is to scan the URL for strings and deny access when matches are found. For example, a web filter can block access to websites that contain the words “gambling”, “porn”, or “malware” in their URLs. A URL is a uniform resource locator that identifies the location and protocol of a web resource. A URL typically consists of the following components: protocol://domain:port/path?query#fragment. The protocol specifies the communication method used to access the web resource, such as HTTP, HTTPS, FTP, or SMTP. The domain is the name of the web server that hosts the web resource, such as www.google.com or www.bing.com. The port is an optional number that identifies the specific service or application running on the web server, such as 80 for HTTP or 443 for HTTPS. The path is the specific folder or file name of the web resource, such as /index.html or /images/logo.png. The query is an optional string that contains additional information or parameters for the web resource, such as ?q=security or ?lang=en. The fragment is an optional string that identifies a specific part or section of the web resource, such as #introduction or #summary.

To prohibit access to non-encrypted websites, an analyst should employ a search string that matches the protocol of non-encrypted web traffic, which is HTTP. HTTP stands for hypertext transfer protocol, and it is a standard protocol for transferring data between web servers and web browsers. However, HTTP does not provide any encryption or security for the data, which means that anyone who intercepts the web traffic can read or modify the data. Therefore, non-encrypted websites are vulnerable to eavesdropping, tampering, or spoofing attacks. To access a non-encrypted website, the URL usually starts with http://, followed by the domain name and optionally the port number. For example, http://www.example.com or http://www.example.com:80. By scanning the URL for the string http://, the web filter can identify and block non-encrypted websites.

The other options are not correct because they do not match the protocol of non-encrypted web traffic. Encryption=off is a possible query string that indicates the encryption status of the web resource, but it is not a standard or mandatory parameter. Https:// is the protocol of encrypted web traffic, which uses hypertext transfer protocol secure (HTTPS) to provide encryption and security for the data. Www.*.com is a possible domain name that matches any website that starts with www and ends with .com, but it does not specify the protocol. :443 is the port number of HTTPS, which is the protocol of encrypted web traffic. References = CompTIA Security+ Study Guide (SY0-701), Chapter 2: Securing Networks, page 69. Professor Messer’s CompTIA SY0-701 Security+ Training Course, Section 2.1: Network Devices and Technologies, video: Web Filter (5:16).

Scheduled downtime is a planned period of time when a system or service is unavailable for maintenance, updates, upgrades, or other changes. Scheduled downtime gives administrators a set period to perform changes to an operational system without disrupting the normal business operations or affecting the availability of the system or service. Scheduled downtime also allows administrators to inform the users and stakeholders about the expected duration and impact of the changes. References: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide: Exam SY0-701, 9th Edition, Chapter 12: Security Operations and Administration, page 579 1

If cadets are using company phone numbers to make unsolicited calls, and the logs confirm the numbers are not being spoofed, it suggests that the SIP (Session Initiation Protocol) server's security settings might be weak. This could allow unauthorized access or exploitation of the company's telephony services, potentially leading to misuse by unauthorized individuals.

References = CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 study materials, especially on SIP security and common vulnerabilities​​.

Mean time to repair (MTTR) describes the time needed to resolve a hardware issue with a server. MTTR is a key metric in risk management and maintenance that measures the average time required to repair a failed component or system and restore it to operational status.

Recovery point objective (RPO): Defines the maximum acceptable amount of data loss measured in time. It is the point in time to which data must be restored after a disaster.

Mean time between failures (MTBF): Measures the average time between failures of a system or component, indicating reliability.

Recovery time objective (RTO): Defines the maximum acceptable length of time to restore a system after a disaster or disruption.

Mean time to repair (MTTR): Measures the average time required to repair a failed component or system.

The correct answer is D because it allows only the device with the IP address 10.50.10.25 to send outbound DNS requests on port 53, and denies all other devices from doing so. The other options are incorrect because they either allow all devices to send outbound DNS requests (A and C), or they allow no devices to send outbound DNS requests (B). References = You can learn more about firewall ACLs and DNS in the following resources:

CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Certification Study Guide, Chapter 4: Network Security1

Professor Messer’s CompTIA SY0-701 Security+ Training Course, Section 3.2: Firewall Rules2

TOTAL: CompTIA Security+ Cert (SY0-701) | Udemy, Section 6: Network Security, Lecture 28: Firewall Rules3

Tokenization is a process that replaces sensitive data, such as credit card information, with a non-sensitive equivalent (token) that can be used in place of the actual data. This technique is particularly useful in securely storing payment information because the token can be safely stored and transmitted without exposing the original credit card number.

References =

CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Course Content: Domain 03 Security Architecture​.

CompTIA Security+ SY0-601 Study Guide: Chapter on Cryptography and Data Protection​.

A tabletop exercise involves the executive team or key stakeholders discussing and testing the company’s incident response plan in a simulated environment. These exercises are low-stress, discussion-based, and help to validate the plan's effectiveness by walking through different scenarios without disrupting actual operations. It is an essential part of testing business continuity and incident response strategies.

Continuity of operations refers to the ability of an organization to continue functioning during and after a disaster but doesn't specifically involve simulations like tabletop exercises.

Capacity planning is related to ensuring the infrastructure can handle growth, not incident response testing.

Parallel processing refers to running multiple processes simultaneously, which is unrelated to testing an incident response plan​​.

Preparation is the phase in the incident response process when a security analyst reviews roles and responsibilities, as well as the policies and procedures for handling incidents. Preparation also involves gathering and maintaining the necessary tools, resources, and contacts for responding to incidents. Preparation can help a security analyst to be ready and proactive when an incident occurs, as well as to reduce the impact and duration of the incident.

Some of the activities that a security analyst performs during the preparation phase are:

Defining the roles and responsibilities of the incident response team members, such as the incident manager, the incident coordinator, the technical lead, the communications lead, and the legal advisor.

Establishing the incident response plan, which outlines the objectives, scope, authority, and procedures for responding to incidents, as well as the escalation and reporting mechanisms.

Developing the incident response policy, which defines the types and categories of incidents, the severity levels, the notification and reporting requirements, and the roles and responsibilities of the stakeholders.

Creating the incident response playbook, which provides the step-by-step guidance and checklists for handling specific types of incidents, such as denial-of-service, ransomware, phishing, or data breach.

Acquiring and testing the incident response tools, such as network and host-based scanners, malware analysis tools, forensic tools, backup and recovery tools, and communication and collaboration tools.

Identifying and securing the incident response resources, such as the incident response team, the incident response location, the evidence storage, and the external support.

Building and maintaining the incident response contacts, such as the internal and external stakeholders, the law enforcement agencies, the regulatory bodies, and the media.

References:

CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Certification Study Guide, Chapter 6: Architecture and Design, Section 6.4: Secure Systems Design, p. 279-280

CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Certification Exam Objectives, Domain 3: Architecture and Design, Objective 3.5: Given a scenario, implement secure network architecture concepts, Sub-objective: Incident response, p. 16

Air-gapping is the most effective way to protect an application server running unsupported software from network threats. By physically isolating the server from any network connection (no wired or wireless communication), it is protected from external cyber threats. While other options like port security or a screened subnet can provide some level of protection, an air gap offers the highest level of security by preventing any network-based attacks entirely.

References =

CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Course Content: Domain 03 Security Architecture​.

CompTIA Security+ SY0-601 Study Guide: Chapter on Secure System Design​.

A Certificate Signing Request (CSR) is a request sent to a certificate authority (CA) to issue an SSL certificate. The CSR contains information like the public key, which will be part of the certificate.References: Security+ SY0-701 Course Content​, Security+ SY0-601 Book​.

To enhance security for a system running an end-of-life operating system, placing the system in an isolated VLAN is the most effective approach. By isolating the system from the rest of the network, you can limit its exposure to potential threats while maintaining its functionality. This segmentation helps protect the rest of the network from any vulnerabilities in the outdated system.

Installing HIDS (Host-based Intrusion Detection System) can help detect intrusions but won't mitigate the risks posed by an unsupported OS.

Decommissioning may not be feasible if the system is critical.

Encrypting the system's hard drive protects data at rest but doesn't address vulnerabilities from an outdated OS​​​.

Data classification is the process of assigning labels or tags to data based on its sensitivity, value, and risk. Data classification is the first step in a data loss prevention (DLP) solution, as it helps to identify what data needs to be protected and how. By applying classifications to the data, the security administrator can define appropriate policies and rules for the DLP solution to prevent the exfiltration of sensitive customer data. References: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide: Exam SY0-701, 9th Edition, Chapter 8: Data Protection, page 323. CompTIA Security+ Practice Tests: Exam SY0-701, 3rd Edition, Chapter 8: Data Protection, page 327.

Monitoring outbound traffic is essential for detecting unauthorized data exfiltration from a system. A new vulnerability that allows malware to move data unauthorizedly would typically attempt to send this data out of the network. By monitoring outbound traffic, security tools can detect unusual data transfers, trigger alerts, and help prevent the exfiltration of sensitive information.

References =

CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Course Content: Domain 04 Security Operations​.

CompTIA Security+ SY0-601 Study Guide: Chapter on Threat Detection and Response​.

Federation is an access management concept that allows users to authenticate once and access multiple resources or services across different domains or organizations. Federation relies on a trusted third party that stores the user’s credentials and provides them to the requested resources or services without exposing them. Password complexity is a security measure that requires users to create passwords that meet certain criteria, such as length, character types, and uniqueness. Password complexity can help prevent brute-force attacks, password guessing, and credential stuffing by making passwords harder to crack or guess. References: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide: Exam SY0-701, 9th Edition, page 308-309 and 312-313 1

802.1X is a network access control protocol that provides an authentication mechanism to devices trying to connect to a LAN or WLAN. It supports the use of certificates for authentication, can quarantine unapproved devices, and ensures that only approved and updated devices can access network resources. This protocol best meets the requirements of securing both wired and wireless networks with internal certificates.

References = CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 study materials, particularly in the domain of network security and authentication protocols​​.

Tuning is the activity of adjusting the configuration or parameters of a security tool or system to optimize its performance and reduce false positives or false negatives. Tuning can help to filter out the normal or benign activity that is detected by the security tool or system, and focus on the malicious or anomalous activity that requires further investigation or response. Tuning can also help to improve the efficiency and effectiveness of the security operations center by reducing the workload and alert fatigue of the analysts. Tuning is different from aggregating, which is the activity of collecting and combining data from multiple sources or sensors to provide a comprehensive view of the security posture. Tuning is also different from quarantining, which is the activity of isolating a potentially infected or compromised device or system from the rest of the network to prevent further damage or spread. Tuning is also different from archiving, which is the activity of storing and preserving historical data or records for future reference or compliance. The act of ignoring detected activity in the future that is deemed normal by the security operations center is an example of tuning, as it involves modifying the settings or rules of the security tool or system to exclude the activity from the detection scope. Therefore, this is the best answer among the given options. References = Security Alerting and Monitoring Concepts and Tools – CompTIA Security+ SY0-701: 4.3, video at 7:00; CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Certification Study Guide, page 191.

A vulnerability scan is the most likely method to identify legacy systems. These scans assess an organization's network and systems for known vulnerabilities, including outdated or unsupported software (i.e., legacy systems) that may pose a security risk. The scan results can highlight systems that are no longer receiving updates, helping IT teams address these risks.

Bug bounty programs are used to incentivize external researchers to find security flaws, but they are less effective at identifying legacy systems.

Package monitoring tracks installed software packages for updates or issues but is not as comprehensive for identifying legacy systems.

Dynamic analysis is typically used for testing applications during runtime to find vulnerabilities, but not for identifying legacy systems​​.

Shadow IT refers to the use of information technology systems, devices, software, applications, and services without explicit IT department approval. This is the most likely cause of introducing vulnerabilities on a corporate network by deploying unapproved software, as such software may not have been vetted for security compliance, increasing the risk of vulnerabilities.

References =

CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Course Content: The concept of Shadow IT is discussed as a significant risk due to the introduction of unapproved and potentially vulnerable software into the corporate network​​.

A legacy server is a server that is running outdated or unsupported software or hardware, which may pose security risks and compatibility issues. A critical business application is an application that is essential for the operation and continuity of the business, such as accounting, payroll, or inventory management. A legacy server running a critical business application may be difficult to replace or upgrade, but it should not be left unsecured or exposed to potential threats.

One of the best ways to handle a legacy server running a critical business application is to harden it. Hardening is the process of applying security measures and configurations to a system to reduce its attack surface and vulnerability. Hardening a legacy server may involve steps such as:

Applying patches and updates to the operating system and the application, if available

Removing or disabling unnecessary services, features, or accounts

Configuring firewall rules and network access control lists to restrict inbound and outbound traffic

Enabling encryption and authentication for data transmission and storage

Implementing logging and monitoring tools to detect and respond to anomalous or malicious activity

Performing regular backups and testing of the system and the application

Hardening a legacy server can help protect the critical business application from unauthorized access, modification, or disruption, while maintaining its functionality and availability. However, hardening a legacy server is not a permanent solution, and it may not be sufficient to address all the security issues and challenges posed by the outdated or unsupported system. Therefore, it is advisable to plan for the eventual decommissioning or migration of the legacy server to a more secure and modern platform, as soon as possible.

References: CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Certification Study Guide, Chapter 3: Architecture and Design, Section 3.2: Secure System Design, Page 133 1; CompTIA Security+ Certification Exam Objectives, Domain 3: Architecture and Design, Objective 3.2: Explain the importance of secure system design, Subobjective: Legacy systems 2

A regulatory requirement is a mandate imposed by a government or an authority that must be followed by an organization or an individual. In a banking environment, audits are often required by regulators to ensure compliance with laws, standards, and policies related to security, privacy, and financial reporting. Audits help to identify and correct any gaps or weaknesses in the security posture and the internal controls of the organization.

References:

Official CompTIA Security+ Study Guide (SY0-701), page 507

Security+ (Plus) Certification | CompTIA IT Certifications 2

SIEM stands for Security Information and Event Management. It is a security alerting and monitoring tool that collects system, application, and network logs from multiple sources in a centralized system. SIEM can analyze the collected data, correlate events, generate alerts, and provide reports and dashboards. SIEM can also integrate with other security tools and support compliance requirements. SIEM helps organizations to detect and respond to cyber threats, improve security posture, and reduce operational costs. References: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide: Exam SY0-701, 9th Edition, Chapter 10: Monitoring and Auditing, page 393. CompTIA Security+ Practice Tests: Exam SY0-701, 3rd Edition, Chapter 10: Monitoring and Auditing, page 397.

Cloud-based models provide strong security with features like encryption, redundancy, and disaster recovery, making it a secure choice for international operations.

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This situation is an example of smishing, which is a type of phishing that uses text messages (SMS) to entice individuals into providing personal or sensitive information to cybercriminals. The best responses to this situation are to add a smishing exercise to the annual company training and to issue a general email warning to the company. A smishing exercise can help raise awareness and educate employees on how to recognize and avoid smishing attacks. An email warning can alert employees to the fraudulent text message and remind them to verify the identity and legitimacy of any requests for information or money. References = What Is Phishing | Cybersecurity | CompTIA, Phishing – SY0-601 CompTIA Security+ : 1.1 - Professor Messer IT Certification Training Courses

Monitoring outbound traffic is essential for detecting unauthorized data exfiltration from a system. A new vulnerability that allows malware to move data unauthorizedly would typically attempt to send this data out of the network. By monitoring outbound traffic, security tools can detect unusual data transfers, trigger alerts, and help prevent the exfiltration of sensitive information.

References =

CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Course Content: Domain 04 Security Operations​.

CompTIA Security+ SY0-601 Study Guide: Chapter on Threat Detection and Response​.

The employee notices that the links in the email do not correspond to the company's official URLs, indicating that this is likely a social engineering attack. Social engineering involves manipulating individuals into divulging confidential information or performing actions that may compromise security. Phishing emails, like the one described, often contain fraudulent links to trick the recipient into providing sensitive information or downloading malware.

Business email refers to business email compromise (BEC), which typically involves impersonating a high-level executive to defraud the company.

Unsecured network is unrelated to the email content.

Default credentials do not apply here, as the issue is with suspicious links, not login credentials​​.

Geographic dispersion is a strategy that involves distributing the servers or data centers across different geographic locations. Geographic dispersion can help the company to mitigate the risk of weather events causing damage to the server room and downtime, as well as improve the availability, performance, and resilience of the network. Geographic dispersion can also enhance the disaster recovery and business continuity capabilities of the company, as it can provide backup and failover options in case of a regional outage or disruption12.

The other options are not the best ways to address the company’s concern:

Clustering servers: This is a technique that involves grouping multiple servers together to act as a single system. Clustering servers can help to improve the performance, scalability, and fault tolerance of the network, but it does not protect the servers from physical damage or downtime caused by weather events, especially if the servers are located in the same room or building3.

Load balancers: These are devices or software that distribute the network traffic or workload among multiple servers or resources. Load balancers can help to optimize the utilization, efficiency, and reliability of the network, but they do not prevent the servers from being damaged or disrupted by weather events, especially if the servers are located in the same room or building4.

Off-site backups: These are copies of data or files that are stored in a different location than the original source. Off-site backups can help to protect the data from being lost or corrupted by weather events, but they do not prevent the servers from being damaged or disrupted by weather events, nor do they ensure the availability or continuity of the network services.

References = 1: CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Certification Study Guide, page 972: High Availability – CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 – 3.4, video by Professor Messer3: CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Certification Study Guide, page 984: CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Certification Study Guide, page 99. : CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Certification Study Guide, page 100.

Port security is the best solution to prevent unauthorized devices, like a visitor's laptop, from connecting to the company’s network. Port security can limit the number of devices that can connect to a network switch port and block unauthorized MAC addresses, effectively stopping unauthorized access attempts.

Web application firewall (WAF) protects against web-based attacks, not unauthorized network access.

Transport Layer Security (TLS) ensures encrypted communication but does not manage physical network access.

Virtual Private Network (VPN) secures remote connections but does not control access through physical network ports​​​.

Smishing is a type of social engineering technique that uses text messages (SMS) to trick victims into revealing sensitive information, clicking malicious links, or downloading malware. Smishing messages often appear to come from legitimate sources, such as banks, government agencies, or service providers, and use urgent or threatening language to persuade the recipients to take action12. In this scenario, the text message that claims to be from the payroll department is an example of smishing.

Impersonation is a type of social engineering technique that involves pretending to be someone else, such as an authority figure, a trusted person, or a colleague, to gain the trust or cooperation of the target. Impersonation can be done through various channels, such as phone calls, emails, text messages, or in-person visits, and can be used to obtain information, access, or money from the victim34. In this scenario, the text message that pretends to be from the payroll department is an example of impersonation.

A. Typosquatting is a type of cyberattack that involves registering domain names that are similar to popular or well-known websites, but with intentional spelling errors or different extensions. Typosquatting aims to exploit the common mistakes that users make when typing web addresses, and redirect them to malicious or fraudulent sites that may steal their information, install malware, or display ads56. Typosquatting is not related to text messages or credential verification.

B. Phishing is a type of social engineering technique that uses fraudulent emails to trick recipients into revealing sensitive information, clicking malicious links, or downloading malware. Phishing emails often mimic the appearance and tone of legitimate organizations, such as banks, retailers, or service providers, and use deceptive or urgent language to persuade the recipients to take action78. Phishing is not related to text messages or credential verification.

D. Vishing is a type of social engineering technique that uses voice calls to trick victims into revealing sensitive information, such as passwords, credit card numbers, or bank account details. Vishing calls often appear to come from legitimate sources, such as law enforcement, government agencies, or technical support, and use scare tactics or false promises to persuade the recipients to comply9 . Vishing is not related to text messages or credential verification.

F. Misinformation is a type of social engineering technique that involves spreading false or misleading information to influence the beliefs, opinions, or actions of the target. Misinformation can be used to manipulate public perception, create confusion, damage reputation, or promote an agenda . Misinformation is not related to text messages or credential verification.

References = 1: What is Smishing? | Definition and Examples | Kaspersky 2: Smishing - Wikipedia 3: Impersonation Attacks: What Are They and How Do You Protect Against Them? 4: Impersonation - Wikipedia 5: What is Typosquatting? | Definition and Examples | Kaspersky 6: Typosquatting - Wikipedia 7: What is Phishing? | Definition and Examples | Kaspersky 8: Phishing - Wikipedia 9: What is Vishing? | Definition and Examples | Kaspersky : Vishing - Wikipedia : What is Misinformation? | Definition and Examples | Britannica : Misinformation - Wikipedia

Input validation is a technique that checks the user input for any malicious or unexpected data before processing it by the web application. Input validation can prevent cross-site scripting (XSS) attacks, which exploit the vulnerability of a web application to execute malicious scripts in the browser of a victim. XSS attacks can compromise the confidentiality, integrity, and availability of the web application and its users. Input validation can be implemented on both the client-side and the server-side, but server-side validation is more reliable and secure. Input validation can use various methods, such as whitelisting, blacklisting, filtering, escaping, encoding, and sanitizing the input data. References = CompTIA Security+ Study Guide with over 500 Practice Test Questions: Exam SY0-701, 9th Edition, Chapter 2, page 70. CompTIA Security+ (SY0-701) Certification Exam Objectives, Domain 3.2, page 11. Application Security – SY0-601 CompTIA Security+ : 3.2

Secure Real-Time Transport Protocol (SRTP) is a security protocol used to encrypt and authenticate the streaming of audio and video over IP networks. It ensures that the video streams from the IP cameras are both encrypted to prevent unauthorized access and authenticated to verify the integrity of the stream, making it the ideal choice for securing video surveillance.

References:

CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Course Content: Domain 3: Security Architecture, which includes secure communication protocols like SRTP for protecting data in transit​​.

Integrating each SaaS solution with an Identity Provider (IdP) is the most effective way to address the security issue. This approach allows for Single Sign-On (SSO) capabilities, where users can access multiple SaaS applications with a single set of credentials while maintaining strong password policies across all services. It simplifies the user experience and ensures consistent security enforcement across different SaaS platforms.

References =

CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Course Content: Domain 05 Security Program Management and Oversight​.

CompTIA Security+ SY0-601 Study Guide: Chapter on Identity and Access Management​.

Using a Privileged Access Management (PAM) vault to secure domain administrator credentials and enforcing role-based access control (RBAC) is the most comprehensive solution. PAM systems help manage and control access to privileged accounts, ensuring that only authorized personnel can access sensitive credentials. This approach also facilitates password rotation, auditing, and ensures that credentials are not misused or left unchanged. Integrating PAM with RBAC ensures that access is granted based on the user's role, further enhancing security.

References =

CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Course Content: Domain 05 Security Program Management and Oversight​.

CompTIA Security+ SY0-601 Study Guide: Chapter on Identity and Access Management​.

An NGFW (Next-Generation Firewall) utilizing application inspection could have identified and blocked the unusual use of HTTP over port 53. Application inspection allows NGFWs to analyze traffic at the application layer, identifying and blocking suspicious or non-standard protocol usage, such as HTTP traffic on DNS port 53.

NGFW utilizing application inspection: Inspects traffic at the application layer and can block non-standard protocol usage, such as HTTP over port 53.

WAF utilizing SSL decryption: Focuses on protecting web applications and decrypting SSL traffic but may not detect the use of HTTP over port 53.

UTM utilizing a threat feed: Provides comprehensive security but may not focus specifically on application layer inspection.

SD-WAN utilizing IPSec: Enhances secure WAN connections but is not primarily designed to inspect and block specific application traffic.

Endpoint management software is a tool that allows security engineers to monitor and control the configuration, security, and performance of workstations and servers from a central console. Endpoint management software can help detect and prevent unauthorized changes and software installations, enforce policies and compliance, and provide reports and alerts on the status of the endpoints. The other options are not as effective or comprehensive as endpoint management software for this purpose. References: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide: Exam SY0-701, 9th Edition, page 137 1

Changing the default password for the local administrator account on a VPN appliance is a basic security measure that would have most likely prevented the unexpected login to the remote management interface. Default passwords are often easy to guess or publicly available, and attackers can use them to gain unauthorized access to devices and systems. Changing the default password to a strong and unique one reduces the risk of brute-force attacks and credential theft. Using least privilege, assigning individual user IDs, and reviewing logs more frequently are also good security practices, but they are not as effective as changing the default password in preventing the unexpected login. References: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide: Exam SY0-701, 9th Edition, page 116; Local Admin Accounts - Security Risks and Best Practices (Part 1)

Safety controls are security controls that are designed to protect human life and physical assets from harm or damage. Examples of safety controls include fire alarms, sprinklers, emergency exits, backup generators, and surge protectors. Safety controls should fail open, which means that they should remain operational or allow access when a failure or error occurs. Failing open can prevent or minimize the impact of a disaster, such as a fire, flood, earthquake, or power outage, on human life and physical assets. For example, if a fire alarm fails, it should still trigger the sprinklers and unlock the emergency exits, rather than remain silent and locked. Failing open can also ensure that essential services, such as healthcare, transportation, or communication, are available during a crisis. Remote access points, logging controls, and logical security controls are other types of security controls, but they should not fail open in a data center. Remote access points are security controls that allow users or systems to access a network or a system from a remote location, such as a VPN, a web portal, or a wireless access point. Remote access points should fail closed, which means that they should deny access when a failure or error occurs. Failing closed can prevent unauthorized or malicious access to the data center’s network or systems, such as by hackers, malware, or rogue devices. Logging controls are security controls that record and monitor the activities and events that occur on a network or a system, such as user actions, system errors, security incidents, or performance metrics. Logging controls should also fail closed, which means that they should stop or suspend the activities or events when a failure or error occurs. Failing closed can prevent data loss, corruption, or tampering, as well as ensure compliance with regulations and standards. Logical security controls are security controls that use software or code to protect data and systems from unauthorized or malicious access, modification, or destruction, such as encryption, authentication, authorization, or firewall. Logical security controls should also fail closed, which means that they should block or restrict access when a failure or error occurs. Failing closed can prevent data breaches, cyberattacks, or logical flaws, as well as ensure confidentiality, integrity, and availability of data and systems. References: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide: Exam SY0-701, 9th Edition, page 142-143, 372-373, 376-377

Port security is the best mitigation technique for preventing an attacker from flooding the MAC address table of network switches. Port security can limit the number of MAC addresses learned on a port, preventing an attacker from overwhelming the switch's MAC table (a form of MAC flooding attack). When the allowed number of MAC addresses is exceeded, port security can block additional devices or trigger alerts.

Load balancer distributes network traffic but does not address MAC flooding attacks.

IPS (Intrusion Prevention System) detects and prevents attacks but isn't specifically designed for MAC flooding mitigation.

NGFW (Next-Generation Firewall) offers advanced traffic inspection but is not directly involved in MAC table security​​​.

 A nation-state is a threat actor that is sponsored by a government or a political entity to conduct cyberattacks against other countries or organizations. Nation-states have large financial resources, advanced technical skills, and strategic objectives that may target critical systems such as military, energy, or infrastructure. Nation-states are often motivated by espionage, sabotage, or warfare12. References = 1: CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Certification Study Guide, page 542: Threat Actors – CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 – 2.1, video by Professor Messer.

Dynamic analysis is performed on software during execution to identify vulnerabilities based on how the software behaves in real-world scenarios. It is useful in detecting security issues that only appear when the application is running.References: CompTIA SY0-701 Course Content​.

A firewall ACL (access control list) is a set of rules that determines which traffic is allowed or denied by the firewall. The rules are processed in order, from top to bottom, until a match is found. The syntax of a firewall ACL rule is:

Access list

To limit outbound DNS traffic originating from the internal network, the firewall ACL should allow only the device with the IP address 10.50.10.25 to send DNS requests to any destination on port 53, and deny all other outbound traffic on port 53. The correct firewall ACL is:

Access list outbound permit 10.50.10.25/32 0.0.0.0/0 port 53 Access list outbound deny 0.0.0.0/0 0.0.0.0/0 port 53

The first rule permits outbound traffic from the source address 10.50.10.25/32 (a single host) to any destination address (0.0.0.0/0) on port 53 (DNS). The second rule denies all other outbound traffic on port 532.

References: CompTIA Security+ Certification Kit: Exam SY0-701, 7th Edition, Chapter 4, page 175.

The security practice that helped the manager identify the suspicious link is end-user training. Training users to recognize phishing attempts and other social engineering attacks, such as hovering over links to check the actual URL, is a critical component of an organization's security awareness program.

End user training: Educates employees on how to identify and respond to security threats, including suspicious emails and phishing attempts.

Policy review: Ensures that policies are understood and followed but does not directly help in identifying specific attacks.

URL scanning: Automatically checks URLs for threats, but the manager identified the issue manually.

Plain text email: Ensures email content is readable without executing scripts, but the identification in this case was due to user awareness.

To ensure that sensitive data, such as Personally Identifiable Information (PII), is not modified, the bank should implement file integrity monitoring (FIM). FIM tracks changes to files and provides alerts if unauthorized modifications are detected, ensuring data integrity.

Full disk encryption protects data at rest but does not prevent or monitor modifications.

Network access control (NAC) manages access to the network but doesn't monitor file changes.

User behavior analytics (UBA) detects suspicious user activities but is not focused on file integrity​​​.

 A compensating control is a security measure that is implemented to mitigate the risk of a vulnerability or a weakness that cannot be resolved by the primary control. A compensating control does not prevent or eliminate the vulnerability or weakness, but it can reduce the likelihood or impact of an attack. A host-based firewall on a legacy Linux system that allows connections from only specific internal IP addresses is an example of a compensating control, as it can limit the exposure of the system to potential threats from external or unauthorized sources. A host-based firewall is a software application that monitors and filters the incoming and outgoing network traffic on a single host, based on a set of rules or policies. A legacy Linux system is an older version of the Linux operating system that may not be compatible with the latest security updates or patches, and may have known vulnerabilities or weaknesses that could be exploited by attackers. References = Security Controls – SY0-601 CompTIA Security+ : 5.1, Security Controls – CompTIA Security+ SY0-501 – 5.7, CompTIA Security+ Study Guide with over 500 Practice Test Questions: Exam SY0-701, 9th Edition, Chapter 5, page 240. CompTIA Security+ (SY0-701) Certification Exam Objectives, Domain 5.1, page 18.

Ensuring that other team members understand how a script works is essential to prevent a single point of failure. If only one person knows how the script operates, the organization risks being unable to maintain or troubleshoot it if that person is unavailable. Sharing knowledge ensures continuity and reduces dependence on one individual.

Reducing implementation cost and remediating technical debt are secondary considerations in this context.

Identifying complexity is important, but the main benefit is to avoid a single point of failure​​.

When calculating risk ratings, the concepts of impact and likelihood are most likely to be considered. Risk assessment typically involves evaluating the potential impact of a threat (how severe the consequences would be if the threat materialized) and the likelihood of the threat occurring (how probable it is that the threat will occur).

Impact: Measures the severity of the consequences if a particular threat exploits a vulnerability. It considers factors such as financial loss, reputational damage, and operational disruption.

Likelihood: Measures the probability of a threat exploiting a vulnerability. This can be based on historical data, current threat landscape, and expert judgment.

Chain of custody is the process of documenting and preserving the integrity of evidence collected during an incident response. It involves recording the details of each person who handled the evidence, the time and date of each transfer, and the location where the evidence was stored. Chain of custody ensures that the evidence is admissible in legal proceedings and can be traced back to its source. E-discovery, legal hold, and preservation are related concepts, but they do not ensure evidence is properly handled. References: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide: Exam SY0-701, 9th Edition, page 487; NIST SP 800-61: 3.2. Evidence Gathering and Handling

The data owner is the role responsible for identifying risks to data and determining who should have access to that data. The owner has the authority to make decisions about the protection and usage of the data, including setting access controls and ensuring that appropriate security measures are in place.

References = CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 study materials, particularly in the domain of data governance and the roles and responsibilities associated with data management​​.

A partially known environment is a type of penetration test where the tester has some information about the target, such as the IP address, the operating system, or the device type. This can help the tester focus on specific vulnerabilities and reduce the scope of the test. A partially known environment is also called a gray box test1.

References: CompTIA Security+ Certification Kit: Exam SY0-701, 7th Edition, Chapter 10, page 543.

A firewall policy is a set of rules that defines what traffic is allowed or denied on a network. A firewall policy should be carefully designed and tested before being implemented, as a misconfigured policy can cause network disruptions or security breaches. A common best practice is to test the policy in a non-production environment, such as a lab or a simulation, before enabling the policy in the production network. This way, the technician can verify the functionality and performance of the policy, and identify and resolve any issues or conflicts, without affecting the live network. Testing the policy in a non-production environment would prevent the issue of the ‘deny any’ policy causing several company servers to become unreachable, as the technician would be able to detect and correct the problem before applying the policy to the production network.

Documenting the new policy in a change request and submitting the request to change management is a good practice, but it would not prevent the issue by itself. Change management is a process that ensures that any changes to the network are authorized, documented, and communicated, but it does not guarantee that the changes are error-free or functional. The technician still needs to test the policy before implementing it.

Disabling any intrusion prevention signatures on the ‘deny any’ policy prior to enabling the new policy would not prevent the issue, and it could reduce the security of the network. Intrusion prevention signatures are patterns that identify malicious or unwanted traffic, and allow the firewall to block or alert on such traffic. Disabling these signatures would make the firewall less effective in detecting and preventing attacks, and it would not affect the reachability of the company servers.

Including an ‘allow any’ policy above the ‘deny any’ policy would not prevent the issue, and it would render the ‘deny any’ policy useless. A firewall policy is processed from top to bottom, and the first matching rule is applied. An ‘allow any’ policy would match any traffic and allow it to pass through the firewall, regardless of the source, destination, or protocol. This would negate the purpose of the ‘deny any’ policy, which is to block any traffic that does not match any of the previous rules. Moreover, an ‘allow any’ policy would create a security risk, as it would allow any unauthorized or malicious traffic to enter or exit the network. References = CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Certification Study Guide, page 204-205; Professor Messer’s CompTIA SY0-701 Security+ Training Course, video 2.1 - Network Security Devices, 8:00 - 10:00.

An engineer should recommend the decommissioning of a network device when the device poses a security risk or a compliance violation to the enterprise environment. A device that cannot meet the encryption standards or receive authorized updates is vulnerable to attacks and breaches, and may expose sensitive data or compromise network integrity. Therefore, such a device should be removed from the network and replaced with a more secure and updated one.

References

CompTIA Security+ Study Guide: Exam SY0-701, 9th Edition, Chapter 2, Section 2.2, page 671

CompTIA Security+ Practice Tests: Exam SY0-701, 3rd Edition, Chapter 2, Question 16, page 512

A buffer overflow is a type of software vulnerability that occurs when an application writes more data to a memory buffer than it can hold, causing the excess data to overwrite adjacent memory locations. This can lead to unexpected behavior, such as crashes, errors, or code execution. A buffer overflow can be exploited by an attacker to inject malicious code or commands into the application, which can compromise the security and functionality of the system. An organization’s internet-facing website was compromised when an attacker exploited a buffer overflow. To best protect against similar attacks in the future, the organization should deploy a web application firewall (WAF). A WAF is a type of firewall that monitors and filters the traffic between a web application and the internet. A WAF can detect and block common web attacks, such as buffer overflows, SQL injections, cross-site scripting (XSS), and more. A WAF can also enforce security policies and rules, such as input validation, output encoding, and encryption. A WAF can provide a layer of protection for the web application, preventing attackers from exploiting its vulnerabilities and compromising its data. References = Buffer Overflows – CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 – 2.3, Web Application Firewalls – CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 – 2.4, [CompTIA Security+ Study Guide with over 500 Practice Test Questions: Exam SY0-701, 9th Edition]

Patch availability most impacts an administrator's ability to address Common Vulnerabilities and Exposures (CVEs) discovered on a server. If a patch is not available for a discovered vulnerability, the administrator cannot remediate the issue directly through patching, which leaves the system exposed until a patch is released.

Patch availability: Directly determines whether a discovered vulnerability can be fixed promptly. Without available patches, administrators must look for other mitigation strategies.

Rescanning requirements: Important for verifying the effectiveness of patches but secondary to the availability of the patches themselves.

Organizational impact: Considers the potential consequences of vulnerabilities but does not directly impact the ability to apply patches.

Risk tolerance: Influences how the organization prioritizes addressing vulnerabilities but does not affect the actual availability of patches.

The scenario shows MD5 hashed password values. The most likely reason the security administrator is focusing on these values is to protect against pass-the-hash attacks. In this type of attack, an attacker can use a captured hash to authenticate without needing to know the actual plaintext password. By managing and monitoring these hashes, the administrator can implement strategies to mitigate this type of threat.

References =

CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Course Content: Domain 04 Security Operations​.

CompTIA Security+ SY0-601 Study Guide: Chapter on Identity and Access Management​.

A VPN is a virtual private network that creates a secure tunnel between two or more devices over a public network. A VPN can encrypt and authenticate the data, as well as hide the IP addresses and locations of the devices. A jump server is a server that acts as an intermediary between a user and a target server, such as a production server. A jump server can provide an additional layer of security and access control, as well as logging and auditing capabilities. A firewall is a device or software that filters and blocks unwanted network traffic based on predefined rules. A firewall can protect the internal network from external threats and limit the exposure of sensitive services and ports. A security analyst should recommend setting up a VPN and placing the jump server inside the firewall to improve the security of the remote desktop access to the production network. This way, the remote desktop service will not be exposed to the public network, and only authorized users with VPN credentials can access the jump server and then the production server. References: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide: Exam SY0-701, 9th Edition, Chapter 8: Secure Protocols and Services, page 382-383 1; Chapter 9: Network Security, page 441-442 1

A backup strategy that combines weekly full backups with daily incremental backups stored on a NAS (Network Attached Storage) drive is likely to meet an organization's Recovery Point Objectives (RPOs) and Recovery Time Objectives (RTOs). This approach ensures that recent data is regularly backed up and that recovery can be done efficiently, without significant data loss or lengthy downtime.

References =

CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Course Content: Domain 05 Security Program Management and Oversight​.

CompTIA Security+ SY0-601 Study Guide: Chapter on Disaster Recovery and Backup Strategies​.

Validating the code signature is the best way to verify software authenticity, as it ensures that the software has not been tampered with and that it comes from a verified source. Code signatures are digital signatures applied by the software vendor, and validating them confirms the software's integrity and origin.References: CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 course content and official CompTIA study resources.

Within an organization's Software Development Life Cycle (SDLC), an Information Security Policy is a vital component. It outlines the rules and procedures for ensuring that the organization’s IT assets and data are protected throughout the development process. Ensuring secure coding practices, access controls, and regular security testing is fundamental in preventing vulnerabilities in applications.

Other options like service-level agreements and branch protection requirements are less likely to be integral to SDLC processes. Penetration testing methodology, while useful, is generally considered outside the scope of the SDLC​​.

HTTP headers can be used to mitigate risks associated with Cross-Site Scripting (XSS). Security-related HTTP headers such as Content Security Policy (CSP) and X-XSS-Protection can be configured to prevent the execution of malicious scripts in the context of a web page.

XSS (Cross-Site Scripting): A vulnerability that allows attackers to inject malicious scripts into web pages viewed by other users. HTTP headers like CSP help prevent XSS attacks by specifying which dynamic resources are allowed to load.

SQLi (SQL Injection): Typically mitigated by using parameterized queries and input validation, not HTTP headers.

DoS (Denial of Service): Mitigated by network and application-level defenses rather than HTTP headers.

SSL (Secure Sockets Layer): Refers to securing communications and is not directly mitigated by HTTP headers; rather, it's implemented using SSL/TLS protocols.

An air-gapped network is a network that is physically isolated from other networks, such as the internet, to prevent unauthorized access and data leakage. However, an air-gapped network can still be compromised by removable devices, such as USB drives, CDs, DVDs, or external hard drives, that are used to transfer data between the air-gapped network and other networks. Removable devices can carry malware, spyware, or other malicious code that can infect the air-gapped network or exfiltrate data from it. Therefore, removable devices are the most common data loss path for an air-gapped network. References: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide: Exam SY0-701, 9th Edition, Chapter 9: Network Security, page 449 1

FIM stands for File Integrity Monitoring, which is a method to secure data by detecting any changes or modifications to files, directories, or registry keys. FIM can help a security administrator track any unauthorized or malicious changes to the data, as well as verify the integrity and compliance of the data. FIM can also alert the administrator of any potential breaches or incidents involving the data.

Some of the benefits of FIM are:

It can prevent data tampering and corruption by verifying the checksums or hashes of the files.

It can identify the source and time of the changes by logging the user and system actions.

It can enforce security policies and standards by comparing the current state of the data with the baseline or expected state.

It can support forensic analysis and incident response by providing evidence and audit trails of the changes.

References:

CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Certification Study Guide, Chapter 5: Technologies and Tools, Section 5.3: Security Tools, p. 209-210

CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Certification Exam Objectives, Domain 2: Technologies and Tools, Objective 2.4: Given a scenario, analyze and interpret output from security technologies, Sub-objective: File integrity monitor, p. 12

A self-signed certificate is a certificate that is signed by its own private key rather than by a trusted certificate authority (CA). This means that the authenticity of the certificate relies solely on the issuer's own authority. If a spoofed identity was detected, it could indicate that a private key associated with a self-signed certificate was compromised. Self-signed certificates are often used internally within organizations, but they carry higher risks since they are not validated by a third-party CA, making them more susceptible to spoofing.

References = CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 study materials, particularly the domains discussing Public Key Infrastructure (PKI) and certificate management​​.

A responsibility matrix clarifies the division of responsibilities between the cloud service provider (CSP) and the customer, ensuring that each party understands and implements their respective security controls.References: Security+ SY0-701 Course Content​.