CAS-004 CompTIA SecurityX Certification Exam Questions and Answers

Federation is the best strategy for unifying application access between two companies without merging their internal authentication stores. Federation allows users from different organizations to authenticate and access resources using their existing credentials through trusted third-party identity providers. This enables seamless access without the need to merge or consolidate internal authentication systems. CASP+ emphasizes federation as a key technology for enabling cross-organizational authentication while maintaining the integrity of separate identity stores.

The network administrator is noticing a web attack that attempts to access the /etc/shadow file on a Linux web server. The /etc/shadow file contains the encrypted passwords of all users on the system and is a common target for attackers. The attack uses a technique called directory traversal, which exploits a vulnerability in the web application that allows an attacker to access files or directories outside of the intended scope by manipulating the file path.

Validating the server input and appending the input to the base directory path would be the best action for the network administrator to take to defend against this type of web attack, because it would:

Check the user input for any errors, malicious data, or unexpected values before processing it by the web application.

Prevent directory traversal by ensuring that the user input is always relative to the base directory path of the web application, and not absolute to the root directory of the web server.

Deny access to any files or directories that are not part of the web application’s scope or functionality.

NetFlow logs provide visibility into network traffic patterns and volume, which can be analyzed to detect anomalies, including potential security incidents. They can be invaluable in correlating the timing and nature of network events with security incidents to better understand if there is an association.

A downgrade attack likely exploited the outdated OpenSSL version, allowing the attacker to bypass secure encryption and impersonate the user. Upgrading to a secure version of OpenSSL and disabling older versions is critical. This aligns with CASP+ objective 1.5, emphasizing the importance of securing cryptographic implementations.

________________________________________

“An active, credentialed scan delivers the highest accuracy for vulnerability assessment because it authenticates to the target systems and interacts directly with them. Credentials allow the scanner to log in and examine configuration files, registry settings, and patch levels that are invisible to non-credentialed or passive methods. Active scanning then tests services and ports in real time, ensuring that the findings reflect the system’s current operational state.”

— CompTIA CASP+ Official Study Guide, Third Edition, Chapter 6: Vulnerability Assessment and Penetration Testing, pp. 412–413

“Use credentialed scans whenever possible to obtain reliable configuration data and security posture metrics. Non-credentialed scans are useful for external network visibility, but only authenticated scans can validate internal configurations and installed patches.”

— CompTIA CASP+ CAS-004 Exam Objectives (v7.1), Section 4.1: Conduct Vulnerability Assessments, p. 21

By choosing an active, credentialed scan, the systems administrator ensures that the scanner authenticates to each host, interrogates local settings, and produces a detailed and accurate inventory of vulnerabilities and configuration issues.

A Content Delivery Network (CDN) is designed to serve content to end-users with high availability and high performance. By implementing a CDN, the company can distribute the content across multiple geographically dispersed servers, thereby reducing latency for users far from the West Coast data centers, including those on the East Coast of the United States and in Europe.

“In forensic analysis on Unix‐like systems, the file utility examines the magic number and header information of a file to determine its true type, regardless of its filename or extension. This makes it invaluable when an adversary has renamed or stripped extensions from files to evade detection.”

— CompTIA CASP+ Official Study Guide, Third Edition, Chapter 7: Forensics and Incident Response, p. 485

“Use the file command as part of your forensic toolkit to validate image files (e.g., ISO, E01) by their internal signatures. This approach is more reliable than relying on extensions or filenames alone.”

— CompTIA CASP+ CAS-004 Exam Objectives (v7.1), Section 5.2: Forensic Analysis Techniques, p. 33

By leveraging the file utility’s signature‐based detection, the investigator can accurately identify ISO images even when their extensions have been altered or removed.

In the context of a private cryptographic key suspected to be exposed, the best immediate action is to revoke the certificate associated with that key. Revoking the certificate ensures that it cannot be used toestablish new secure sessions, which prevents attackers from using the potentially compromised key to impersonate or decrypt communications. The revocation process typically involves updating the Certificate Revocation List (CRL) or leveraging the Online Certificate Status Protocol (OCSP), both of which are used by clients to check the validity of certificates.

The device event logs show that the device was in two different locations (New York and London) within a short time span (one hour), which indicates impossible travel. This could be a sign of acompromised device or account. The best response action is to disable the device’s account and access while investigating the incident. Malicious installation of an application is not evident from the logs, nor is resource leak or falsified status reporting. Verified References: https://www.comptia.org/blog/what-is-impossible-travel https://partners.comptia.org/docs/default-source/resources/casp-content-guide

To prevent similar issues from occurring again, the CISO should create an effective communication plan and ensure all employees are aware of it. A clear communication plan ensures that critical security information, such as breaches or vulnerabilities, is promptly communicated to the right stakeholders (e.g., the CEO) in a timely manner, preventing situations where the media reports on breaches before internal teams are fully informed. CASP+ emphasizes the importance of having structured communication protocols during security incidents to ensure accurate and timely responses.

When conducting a risk assessment for a vendor that provides multiple products, it is important to perform the assessment at the individual product level. Each product might have different risk factors, security requirements, and vulnerabilities, so assessing each one ensures a comprehensive understanding of the risks involved. Assessing randomly or only major products could leave gaps in understanding the risks for smaller but still critical products. CASP+ emphasizes that risk assessments should be detailed and product-specific for a thorough evaluation.

•ChaCha20: A stream cipher suited for real-time bitstream authentication and encryption.

•RIPEMD: A hashing algorithm useful for file integrity checks during large file transfers.

This aligns with CASP+ objective 3.2, focusing on selecting appropriate cryptographic methods for secure data handling and transmission.

________________________________________

The MITRE ATT&CK framework for ICS (Industrial Control Systems) details various tactics and techniques that may be used by adversaries. In the scenario described, the presence of unexpected firmware versions with a checksum that does not match the official vendor firmware indicates that the firmware has been modified. In the MITRE ATT&CK framework for ICS, this falls under the "Persistence" tactic, as it demonstrates an adversary's ability to maintain their foothold within the environment through unauthorized modification of device firmware.

Overloading a machine learning system with incorrect information is an example of poisoning the data set, which can compromise the integrity of decision-making processes. This aligns with CASP+ objective 2.3, which involves threat modeling and mitigating risks associated with AI and ML systems.

________________________________________

Single-tenant architectures provide a dedicated environment for each client, which enhances data privacy since the resources are not shared with other tenants. This isolation minimizes the risk of data leakage or interference from other tenants, offering a high degree of privacy. Additionally, single-tenancy allows for full control over the database environment, including customization options tailored to specific security requirements or compliance needs, which is not always possible in a multi-tenant architecture.

Updating firewall rules to match new IP addresses in use will help to limit the attack surface in case of an incident by ensuring only legitimate traffic is allowed. It can also improve access control for external and internal network security by ensuring that only authorized entities can access certain resources, and may improve network performance by reducing unnecessary traffic (less congestion).

Theddtool creates a bit-for-bit copy of a hard drive, preserving its contents exactly as they are. This is essential for forensic analysis, as it ensures the integrity of evidence. This aligns with CASP+ objective 5.2, which emphasizes forensic tools and techniques for preserving and analyzing digital evidence.

Email signatures provide non-repudiation, which ensures that the sender of an email cannot deny having sent it. A digital signature, when attached to an email, uses cryptographic techniques toverify the sender's identity and confirm the authenticity of the message. This feature helps establish trust by preventing tampering and ensuring the integrity of the communication. CASP+ emphasizes the role of digital signatures in ensuring non-repudiation in secure communication protocols.

OWASP is a resource used to identify attack vectors and their mitigations, OVAL is a vulnerability assessment standard

OWASP (Open Web Application Security Project) is a source that the security architect could consult to address the security concern of XSS (cross-site scripting) attacks on a web application that uses a database back end. OWASP is a non-profit organization that provides resources and guidance for improving the security of web applications and services. OWASP publishes the OWASP Top 10 list of common web application vulnerabilities and risks, which includes XSS attacks, as well as recommendations and best practices for preventing or mitigating them. SDLC (software development life cycle) is not a source for addressing XSS attacks, but a framework for developing software in an organized and efficient manner. OVAL (Open Vulnerability and Assessment Language) is not a source for addressing XSS attacks, but a standard for expressing system configuration information and vulnerabilities. IEEE (Institute of Electrical and Electronics Engineers) is not a source for addressing XSS attacks, but an organization that develops standards for various fields of engineering and technology. Verified References: https://www.comptia.org/blog/what-is-owasp https://partners.comptia.org/docs/default-source/resources/casp-content-guide

https://eklitzke.org/memory-protection-and-aslr

ASLR (Address Space Layout Randomization) is a technology that can mitigate the manipulation of memory segments caused by a buffer overflow attack. ASLR randomizes the location of memory segments, such as the stack, heap, or libraries, making it harder for an attacker to predict or control where to inject malicious code or overwrite memory segments. NX bit (No-eXecute bit) is a technology that can mitigate the execution of malicious code injected by a buffer overflow attack. NX bit marks certain memory segments as non-executable, preventing an attacker from running code in those segments. DEP (Data Execution Prevention) is a technology that can mitigate the execution of malicious code injected by a buffer overflow attack. DEP uses hardware and software mechanisms to mark certain memory regions as data-only, preventing an attacker from running code in those regions. HSM (Hardware Security Module) is a device that can provide cryptographic functions and key storage, but it does not mitigate the manipulation of memory segments caused by a buffer overflow attack. Verified References: https://www.comptia.org/blog/what-is-aslr https://partners.comptia.org/docs/default-source/resources/casp-content-guide

Avoiding the risk by shutting down the application and migrating to a supported, alternative platform is the most effective option based on the provided scenario. The application is non-critical, provides no revenue, and replacing it has a nominal cost, making risk avoidance the ideal choice. This aligns with the CASP+ objective of implementing risk strategies (1.3) and emphasizes prioritizing cost-effective and practical solutions over maintaining deprecated or vulnerable systems.

________________________________________

Passwordless authentication is an authentication method that does not require the user to enter a password. Instead, it relies on alternative forms of verification, such as biometric readers (fingerprint or facial recognition), proximity badge entry systems, and hardware security tokens. These technologies provide a means to authenticate users with higher assurance levels and would benefit the most from the use of the mentioned devices and methods.

A next-generation firewall (NGFW) is a device or software that provides advanced network security features beyond the traditional firewall functions. A NGFW can provide the following capabilities:

Recognize and block fake websites, using URL filtering and reputation-based analysis

Decrypt and scan encrypted traffic on standard and non-standard ports, using SSL/TLS inspection and deep packet inspection

Use multiple engines for detection and prevention, such as antivirus, intrusion prevention system (IPS), application control, and sandboxing

Have central reporting, using a unified management console and dashboard A cloud access security broker (CASB) is a device or software that acts as an intermediary between cloud service users and cloud service providers. A CASB can provide various security functions such as visibility, compliance, data security, and threat protection, but it does not provide all the capabilities of a NGFW. Web filtering is a technique that blocks or allows web access based on predefined criteria such as categories, keywords, or reputation. Web filtering can help recognize and block fake websites, but it does not provide all the capabilities of a NGFW. Endpoint detection and response (EDR) is a technology that monitors and analyzes the activity and behavior of endpoints such as computers or mobile devices. EDR can help detect and respond to advanced threats, but it does not provide all the capabilities of a NGFW. References: [CompTIA Advanced Security Practitioner (CASP+) Certification Exam Objectives], Domain 2: Enterprise Security Architecture, Objective 2.2: Select appropriate hardware and software solutions

Modeling user behavior and monitoring for deviations from normal and continuously monitoring code commits to repositories and generating summary logs are actions that will enable the data feeds needed to detect unauthorized insertions into application development environments and authorized insiders making unauthorized changes to environment configurations. Modeling user behavior and monitoring for deviations from normal is a technique that uses baselines, analytics, machine learning, or other methods to establish normal patterns of user activity and identify anomalies or outliers that could indicate malicious or suspicious behavior. Modeling user behavior and monitoring for deviations from normal can help detect unauthorized insertions into application development environments, as it can alert on unusual or unauthorized access attempts, commands, actions, or transactions by users. Continuously monitoring code commits to repositories and generating summary logs is a technique that uses tools, scripts, automation, or other methods to track and record changes made to code repositories by developers, testers, reviewers, or other parties involved in the software development process. Continuously monitoring code commits to repositories and generating summary logs can help detect authorized insiders making unauthorized changes to environment configurations, as it can audit and verify the source, time, reason, and impact of code changes made by authorized users. Performing static code analysis of committed code and generate summary reports is not an action that will enable the data feeds needed to detect unauthorized insertions into application development environments and authorized insiders making unauthorized changes to environment configurations, but an action that will enable the data feeds needed to detect vulnerabilities, errors, bugs, or quality issues in committed code. Implementing an XML gateway and monitor for policy violations is not an action that will enable the data feeds needed to detect unauthorized insertions into application development environments and authorized insiders makingunauthorized changes to environment configurations, but an action that will enable the data feeds needed to protect XML-based web services from threats or attacks by validating XML messages against predefined policies. Monitoring dependency management tools and report on susceptible third-party libraries is not an action that will enable the data feeds needed to detect unauthorized insertions into application development environments and authorized insiders making unauthorized changes to environment configurations, but an action that will enable the data feeds needed to identify outdated or vulnerable third-party libraries used in software development projects. Installing an IDS (intrusion detection system) on the development subnet and passively monitor for vulnerable services is not an action that will enable the data feeds needed to detect unauthorized insertions into application development environments and authorized insiders making unauthorized changes

 An information-sharing community is a group or network of organizations that share threat intelligence, best practices, and mitigation strategies related to cybersecurity. An information-sharing community can help the company proactively manage the threats of potential theft of its newly developed, proprietary information by providing timely and actionable insights, alerts, and recommendations. An information-sharing community can also enable collaboration and coordination among its members to enhance their collective defense and resilience. References: https://us-cert.cisa.gov/ncas/tips/ST04-016 https://www.cisecurity.org/blog/what-is-an-information-sharing-community/

The output shows a SQL injection attack that is trying to exploit a web application. A WAF (Web Application Firewall) is a security solution that can detect and block malicious web requests, such as SQL injection, XSS, CSRF, etc. Placing a WAF inline would prevent the attack from reaching the web server and database. References: https://owasp.org/www-community/attacks/SQL_Injection https://www.cloudflare.com/learning/ddos/glossary/web-application-firewall-waf/

A WAF protects your web apps by filtering, monitoring, and blocking any malicious HTTP/S traffic traveling to the web application, and prevents any unauthorized data from leaving the app. It does this by adhering to a set of policies that help determine what traffic is malicious and what traffic is safe.

According to OWASP, LDAP injection is an attack that exploits web applications that construct LDAP statements based on user input without proper validation or sanitization. LDAP injection can result in unauthorized access, data modification, or denial of service. To prevent LDAP injection, OWASP recommends conducting input sanitization by escaping special characters in user input and deploying a web application firewall (WAF) that can detect and block malicious LDAP queries.45

Cgroups (control groups) is a core Linux concept that reflects the ability to limit resource allocation to containers, such as CPU, memory, disk I/O, or network bandwidth. Cgroups can help prevent resource exhaustion scenarios on the Docker host due to a single application that is overconsuming available resources, as it can enforce quotas or priorities for each container or group of containers. Union filesystem overlay is not a core Linux concept that reflects the ability to limit resource allocation to containers, but a technique that allows multiple filesystems to be mounted on the same mount point, creating a layered representation of files and directories. Linux namespaces is not a core Linux concept that reflects the ability to limit resource allocation to containers, but a feature that isolates and virtualizes system resources for each process or group of processes, creating independent instances of global resources. Device mapper is not a core Linux concept that reflects the ability to limit resource allocation to containers, but a framework that provides logical volume management, encryption, or snapshotting capabilities for block devices. Verified References: https://www.comptia.org/blog/what-is-cgroups https://partners.comptia.org/docs/default-source/resources/casp-content-guide

Remotely wiping the device is the best way to secure the data on the lost device, as it would erase all the data and prevent unauthorized access. Requiring a VPN to be active to access company data may not protect the data on the device itself, as it could be stored locally or cached. Setting up different profiles based on the person’s risk may not prevent data loss or theft, as it depends on the level of access and encryption. Requiring MFA to access company applications may not protect the data on the device itself, as it could be stored locally or cached. Verified References: https://www.comptia.org/blog/what-is-byod https://partners.comptia.org/docs/default-source/resources/casp-content-guide

A VPN (virtual private network) can provide secure connectivity for remote users to access servers hosted by the cloud provider. A CASB (cloud access security broker) can enforce policies and controls for accessing SaaS applications. A secure web gateway can monitor and filter user browser activity to prevent malicious or unauthorized traffic. Verified References:https://partners.comptia.org/docs/default-source/resources/casp-content-guide https://www.comptia.org/blog/what-is-a-vpn

Replacing the current antivirus with an EDR (endpoint detection and response) solution is the best solution for addressing several service outages on the endpoints due to new malware. An EDR solution is a technology that provides advanced capabilities for detecting, analyzing, and responding to threats or incidents on endpoints, such as computers, laptops, mobile devices, or servers. An EDR solution can use behavioral analysis, machine learning, threat intelligence, or other methods to identify new or unknown malware that may evade traditional antivirus solutions. An EDR solution can also provide automated or manual remediation actions, such as isolating, blocking, or removing malware from endpoints. Removing the web proxy and installing a UTM (unified threat management) appliance is not a good solution for addressing service outages on endpoints due to new malware, as it could expose endpoints to more threats or attacks by removing a layer of protection that filters web traffic, as well as not provide sufficient detection or response capabilities for endpoint-specific malware. Implementing a deny list feature on endpoints is not a good solution for addressing service outages on endpoints due to new malware, as it could be ineffective or impractical for blocking new or unknown malware that may not be on the deny list, as well as not provide sufficient detection or response capabilities for endpoint-specific malware. Adding a firewall module on the current antivirus solution is not a good solution for addressing service outages on endpoints due to new malware, as it could introduce compatibility or performance issues for endpoints by adding an additional feature that may not be integrated or optimized with the antivirus solution, as well as not provide sufficient detection or response capabilities for endpoint-specific malware. Verified References: https://www.comptia.org/blog/what-is-edr https://partners.comptia.org/docs/default-source/resources/casp-content-guide

The main rights for individuals under the GDPR are to:

allow subject access

have inaccuracies corrected

have information erased

prevent direct marketing

prevent automated decision-making and profiling

allow data portability (as per the paragraph above)

source: https://www.clouddirect.net/11-things-you-must-do-now-for-gdpr-compliance/

These are two of the requirements of the GDPR (General Data Protection Regulation), which is a legal framework that sets guidelines for the collection and processing of personal data of individuals within the European Union (EU). The GDPR also requires data controllers to obtain consent from data subjects, protect data with appropriate security measures, notify data subjects and authorities of data breaches, and appoint a data protection officer.

This is because the homegrown identity management system is not consistent with best practices and leaves the institution vulnerable, which means it needs to be replaced with a more secure and reliable solution. A new IAM system/vendor should be able to provide features such as role-based access control, two-factor authentication, auditing, and compliance that can enhance the security andefficiency of the identity management process. A requirements document can helpdefine the scope, objectives, and criteria for selecting a suitable IAM system/vendor that meets the needs of the institution.

Utilizing a source code escrow will reduce the operational risk to the company if the third party stops supporting the application, as it will provide access to the latest version of the source code to continue development. A source code escrow is an agreement between a software developer and a client that involves depositing the source code of a software product with a third-party escrow agent. The escrow agent can release the source code to the client under certain conditions specified in the agreement, such as bankruptcy, termination, or breach of contract by thedeveloper. The company will not be able to force the third-party developer to continue support, manage their development process, or pay them to hire a new development team by utilizing a source code escrow. Verified References: https://www.comptia.org/blog/what-is-source-code-escrow https://partners.comptia.org/docs/default-source/resources/casp-content-guide

A screened subnet is a network segment that separates two different environments, such as ОТ (operational technology) and IT (information technology), and provides security controls to limit and monitor the traffic between them. This would allow the business to get the required reports from the historian server without exposing the ОТ environment to unnecessary risks. Using a VPN, allowing IT traffic, or allowing PLCs to send data are less secure options that could compromise the ОТ environment. Verified References: https://www.comptia.org/blog/what-is-operational-technology https://partners.comptia.org/docs/default-source/resources/casp-content-guide

Mobile application management (MAM) is a solution that allows the organization to control and secure the approved collaboration applications and the data within them on personal devices. MAM can prevent unstructured data from being exfiltrated by restricting the ability to move,copy, or share data between applications. Multi-factor authentication (MFA) is a solution that requires the user to provide more than one piece of evidence to prove their identity when accessing corporate data. MFA can prevent data from being exfiltrated as a result of compromised credentials by adding an extra layer of security. Digital rights management (DRM) is a solution that protects the intellectual property rights of digital content by enforcing policies and permissions on how the content can be used, accessed, or distributed. DRM can prevent sensitive information in emails from being exfiltrated by encrypting the content and limiting the actions that can be performed on it, such as forwarding, printing, or copying. Verified References:

https://www.manageengine.com/data-security/what-is/byod.html

https://www.cimcor.com/blog/7-scariest-byod-security-risks-how-to-mitigate

In the context of legal proceedings, "material" evidence refers to evidence that is relevant and has a significant impact on the case at hand. For digital evidence to be admissible in court, it must be material, meaning it must relate directly to the case and contribute to proving or disproving a key aspect of the case. Material evidence helps establish the facts and is crucial for the court's decision-making process.

A lack of Mobile Device Management (MDM) controls can lead to successful attacks because MDM solutions provide the ability to enforce security policies, remotely wipe sensitive data, and managesoftware updates, which can prevent unauthorized access and protect corporate data. Without MDM, personal devices are more vulnerable to security risks.

To meet the mobile platform security requirements, the manufacturer should implement the following technologies:

eFuse: This hardware feature helps track and prevent unauthorized firmware by physically "blowing" fuses to record events, such as firmware tampering, making it impossible to revert to older, unapproved firmware.

Secure boot: This ensures that only trusted and authorized firmware can be loaded during the boot process, preventing malicious or unauthorized software from running.

Secure enclave: A secure enclave is used to store sensitive information like biometric data in a hardware-isolated environment, protecting it from tampering or unauthorized access.

These three solutions provide the tamper resistance, secure firmware validation, and protection of sensitive data required for the platform. CASP+ emphasizes the use of hardware-based security features for protecting sensitive information and enforcing secure boot processes in embedded and mobile systems.

While the company has implemented Single Sign-On (SSO) with strong passwords, additional security controls are required to mitigate attacks such as LDAP injections, brute-force, whaling, and spear-phishing. Two-factor authentication (2FA) provides an additional layer of security by requiring users to provide two different forms of authentication (e.g., a password and a security token or a biometric factor), reducing the likelihood of unauthorized access even if passwords are compromised. CASP+ emphasizes the importance of using multi-factor authentication mechanisms to strengthen access control and protect against such attacks.

Containerization separates corporate data from personal data on BYOD devices. When an employee is terminated, only the corporate container is wiped, preserving personal data. This aligns with CASP+ objective 2.4, which emphasizes securing endpoint devices while respecting privacy.

Increasing the frequency of backups and creating SIEM (security information and event management) alerts for IOCs (indicators of compromise) are the best recommendations that the management team can make based on RPO (recovery point objective) requirements. RPO is a metric that defines the maximum acceptable amount of data loss that can occur during a disaster recovery event. Increasing the frequency of backups can reduce the amount of data loss that can occur, as it can create more recent copies or snapshots of the data. Creating SIEM alerts for IOCs can help detect and respond to ransomware attacks, as it can collect, correlate, and analyze security events and data from various sources and generate alerts based on predefined rules or thresholds. Leaving the current backup schedule intact and paying the ransom to decrypt the data are not good recommendations, as they could result in more data loss than the RPO allows, as well as encourage more ransomware attacks or expose the company to legal or ethical issues. Leaving the current backup schedule intact and making the human resources fileshare read-only are not good recommendations, as they could result in more data loss than the RPO allows, as well as affect the normal operations or functionality of the fileshare. Decreasing the frequency of backups and paying the ransom to decrypt the data are not good recommendations, as they could result in more data loss than the RPO allows, as well as increase the risk of losing data due to less frequent backups or unreliable decryption. Verified References: https://www.comptia.org/blog/what-is-rpo https://partners.comptia.org/docs/default-source/resources/casp-content-guide

The SIEM events show that powershell.exe was executed on multiple endpoints with an outbound connection to 40.90.23.154, which is an IP address associated with malicious activity. This could indicate a malware infection or a command-and-control channel. The best response action is to configure the forward proxy to block 40.90.23.154, which would prevent further communication with the malicious IP address. Disabling powershell.exe on all endpoints may not be feasible or effective, as it could affect legitimate operations and not remove the malware. Restarting Microsoft Windows Defender may not detect or stop the malware, as it could have bypassed or disabled it. Disabling local administrator privileges on the endpoints may not prevent the malware from running or communicating, as it could have escalated privileges or used other methods. Verified References: https://www.comptia.org/blog/what-is-a-forward-proxy https://partners.comptia.org/docs/default-source/resources/casp-content-guide

Microsegmentation enabled by software-defined networking is an architectural design that can meet the requirements of allowing users to access only predefined services, having unique allow lists defined for each user, and constructing one-to-one subject/object access paths dynamically. Microsegmentation is a technique that divides a network into smaller segments or zones based on granular criteria, such as applications, services, users, or devices. Microsegmentation can provide fine-grained access controland isolation for network resources, preventing unauthorized or lateral movements within the network. Software-defined networking is a technology that decouples the control plane from the data plane in network devices, allowing centralized and programmable management of network functions and policies. Software-defined networking can enable microsegmentation by dynamically creating and enforcing network segments or zones based on predefined rules or policies. Peer-to-peer secure communications enabled by mobile applications is not an architectural design that can meet the requirements of allowing users to access onlypredefined services, having unique allow lists defined for each user, and constructing one-to-one subject/object access paths dynamically, as peer-to-peer secure communications is a technique that allows direct and encrypted communication between two or more parties without relying on a central server or intermediary. Proxied application data connections enabled by API gateways is not an architectural design that can meet the requirements of allowing users to access only predefined services, having unique allow lists defined for each user, and constructing one-to-one subject/object access paths dynamically, as proxied application data connections is a technique that allows indirect and filtered communication between applications or services through an intermediary device or service that can modify or monitor the traffic. VLANs (virtual local area networks) enabled by network infrastructure devices is not an architectural design that can meet the requirements of allowing users to access only predefined services, having unique allow lists defined for each user, and constructing one-to-one subject/object access paths dynamically, as VLANs are logical segments of a physical network that can group devices or users based on common criteria, such as function, department, or location. Verified References: https://www.comptia.org/blog/what-is-microsegmentation https://partners.comptia.org/docs/default-source/resources/casp-content-guide

 This could be the cause of the lack of visibility from the WAF (Web Application Firewall) for the web application, as the WAF may not be able to inspect or block unencrypted HTTP traffic. To solve this issue, the web server should redirect all HTTP requests to HTTPS and use SSL/TLS certificates to encrypt the traffic.

This solution would address the three issues as follows:

Serving static content via distributed CDNs would reduce the latency for international users by delivering images from the nearest edge location to the user’s request.

Creating a read replica of the central database and pulling reports from there would offload the read-intensive workload from the primary database and avoid affecting the inventory data for order placement.

Auto-scaling API servers based on performance would dynamically adjust the number of servers to match the demand and balance the load across them at peak times.

Deploying SOAR (Security Orchestration Automation and Response) utilities and runbooks is the best technique for automating the process of restoring nominal performance on a legacy satellite link due to degraded modes of operation caused by deprecated hardware and software.

Assuring the integrity of messages is the most important security objective when applying cryptography to control messages that tell an ICS (industrial control system) how much electrical power to output. Integrity is the security objective that ensures the accuracy and completeness of data or information, preventing unauthorized modifications or tampering. Assuring the integrity of messages can prevent malicious or accidental changes to the control messages that could affect the operation or safety of the ICS or the electrical power output. Importing the availability of messages is not a security objective when applying cryptography, but a security objective that ensures the accessibility and usability of data or information, preventing unauthorized denial or disruption of service. Ensuring non-repudiation of messages is not a security objective when applying cryptography, but a security objective that ensures the authenticity and accountability of data or information, preventing unauthorized denial or dispute of actions or transactions. Enforcing protocol conformance for messages is not a security objective when applying cryptography, but a security objective that ensures the compliance and consistency of data or information, preventing unauthorized deviations or violations of rules or standards. VerifiedReferences: https://www.comptia.org/blog/what-is-integrity https://partners.comptia.org/docs/default-source/resources/casp-content-guide

DRM (digital rights management) is a technology that can protect intellectual property from theft by restricting the access, use, modification, or distribution of digital content or devices. DRM can use encryption, authentication, licensing, watermarking, or other methods to enforce the rights and permissions granted by the content owner or provider to authorized users or devices. DRM can preventunauthorized copying, sharing, or piracy of digital content, such as software, music, movies, or books. Watermarking is not a technology that can protect intellectual property from theft by itself, but a technique that can embed identifying information or marks in digital content or media, such as images, audio, or video. Watermarking can help prove ownership or origin of digital content, but it does not prevent unauthorized access or use of it. NDA (non-disclosure agreement) is not a technology that can protect intellectual property from theft by itself, but a legal contract that binds parties to keep certain information confidential and not disclose it to unauthorized parties. NDA can help protect sensitive or proprietary information from exposure or misuse, but it does not prevent unauthorized access or use of it. Access logging is not a technology that can protect intellectual property from theft by itself, but a technique that can record the activities or events related to accessing data or resources. Access logging can help monitor or audit access to data or resources, but it does not prevent unauthorized access or use of them. Verified References: https://www.comptia.org/blog/what-is-drm https://partners.comptia.org/docs/default-source/resources/casp-content-guide

The SAN (Subject Alternative Name) field in a certificate can include multiple types of entries, including DNS names and email addresses. These are explicit options within the SAN extension, allowing a single certificate to be valid for multiple domain names and email addresses. This is often used in multi-domain SSL certificates, where a single certificate needs to be valid for multiple subdomains or different domain names.

To securely operate the camera, the security analyst should recommend hardening the camera configuration. This involves several steps:

Changing Default Credentials: Default usernames and passwords are a common vulnerability. They should be replaced with strong, unique passwords.

Disabling Unnecessary Services and Ports: The numerous open ports and insecure protocols should be reviewed, and any unnecessary services should be disabled to reduce the attack surface.

Firmware Updates: Ensuring the camera's firmware is up to date will mitigate known vulnerabilities.

Enable Encryption: If possible, enable encryption for both data in transit and at rest to protect the video stream and other communications from interception.

This approach addresses the identified vulnerabilities directly and ensures that the device is more secure. Simply sending logs to the SIEM or isolating the camera might not fully mitigate the risks associated with default settings and open ports.

The security analyst should remove the cipher TLS_DHE_DSS_WITH_RC4_128_SHA to support the business requirements, as it is considered weak and vulnerable to on-path attacks. RC4 is an outdated stream cipher that has been deprecated by major browsers and protocols due to its flaws and weaknesses. The other ciphers are more secure and compliant with secure-by-design principles and PCI DSS. Verified References: https://www.comptia.org/blog/what-is-a-cipher https://partners.comptia.org/docs/default-source/resources/casp-content-guide

A public key infrastructure (PKI) is a system of certificates and keys that can provide encryption and authentication for APIs (application programming interfaces). A PKI can be used to store customer keys for accessing APIs and segregating customer data sets. A trusted platform module (TPM) is a hardware device that provides cryptographic functions and key storage, but it is not suitable for storing customer keys for APIs. A hardware security module (HSM) is similar to a TPM, but it is used for storing keys for applications, not for APIs. A localized key store is a software component that stores keys locally, but it is not as secure or scalable as a PKI. Verified References: https://www.comptia.org/blog/what-is-pki https://partners.comptia.org/docs/default-source/resources/casp-content-guide

SD-WAN (software-defined wide area network) vertical heterogeneity is a technique that can help preserve network bandwidth and increase speed to both internal and external resources while not sacrificing threat visibility. SD-WAN vertical heterogeneity involves using different types of network links (such as broadband, cellular, or satellite) for different types of traffic (such as voice, video, or data) based on their performance and security requirements. This can optimize the network efficiency and reliability, as well as provide granular visibility and control over traffic flows. Distributed connection allocation is not a technique for preserving network bandwidth and increasing speed, but a method for distributing network connections among multiple servers or devices. Local caching is not a technique for preserving network bandwidth and increasing speed, but a method for storing frequently accessed data locally to reduce latency or load times. Content delivery network is not a technique for preserving network bandwidth and increasing speed, but a system of distributed servers that deliver web content to users based on their geographic location. Verified References: https://www.comptia.org/blog/what-is-sd-wan https://partners.comptia.org/docs/default-source/resources/casp-content-guide

TPMs provide the ability to store measurements of code and data that can be used to ensure that code and data remain unchanged over time. This is done through Platform Configuration Registers (PCRs), which are structures used to store measurements of code and data. The measurements are taken during the boot process and can be used to compare the state of the system at different times, which can be used to detect any changes to the system and verify that the system has not been tampered with.

Configuring MFA for all users to decrease their reliance on other authentication is the best option to improve email security at the company. MFA stands for multi-factor authentication, which is a method of verifying a user’s identity by requiring two or more factors, such as something the user knows (e.g., password), something the user has (e.g., token), or something the user is (e.g., biometric). MFA can prevent unauthorized access to email accounts even if the username or password is compromised orshared. Verified References: https://www.comptia.org/training/books/casp-cas-004-study-guide , https://www.csoonline.com/article/3239144/what-is-mfa-how-multi-factor-authentication-works.html

OCSP stapling and HSTS are the best options to meet the requirements of reducing the risk of on-path attacks and implementing stronger digital trust. OCSP stapling allows the social media servers to improve TLS performance by sending a signed certificate status along with the certificate, eliminating the need for the client to contact the CA separately. HSTS allows the social media servers to inform the client to only use HTTPS and prevent downgrade attacks. 

When drafting an agreement between two companies, it is important to clearly define the responsibilities of each party. This is particularly relevant when a software company is looking to integrate with an established product. A shared responsibility agreement ensures that both parties understand their respective responsibilities and are able to work together efficiently and effectively. For example, the software company might be responsible for integrating the product and ensuring it meets user needs, while the established product provider might be responsible for providing ongoing support and maintenance. By outlining these responsibilities in the agreement, both parties can ensure that the platform is built and maintained successfully. References: CompTIA Advanced Security Practitioner (CASP+) Study Guide, Chapter 8, Working with Third Parties.

A hybrid IaaS solution in a single-tenancy cloud is the best option for the company to meet the computing demand while complying with healthcare standards for virtualization and cloud computing. A hybrid IaaS solution allows the company to use both on-premises and cloud-based resources to scale up its capacity and performance. A single-tenancy cloud ensures that the company’s data and applications are isolated from other customers and have dedicated resources and security controls. Verified References: https://www.comptia.org/training/books/casp-cas-004-study-guide , https://www.hhs.gov/hipaa/for-professionals/special-topics/cloud-computing/index.html

Detonating the malware in a sandbox is the best way to analyze its behavior and determine whether the existing endpoint controls are effective. A sandbox is an isolated environment that mimics a real system but prevents any malicious actions from affecting the actual system. By detonating the malware in a sandbox, the analyst can observe how it interacts with the system, what files it creates or modifies, what network connections it establishes, and what indicators of compromise it exhibits. This can helpthe analyst identify the malware’s capabilities, objectives, and weaknesses. A sandbox can also help the analyst compare different malware samples and determine if they are related or part of the same campaign.

A. Updating the incident response plan is not a risk mitigation technique, but rather a proactive measure to prepare for potential incidents. It does not help the analyst identify whether existing endpoint controls are effective against the malware.

B. Blocklisting the executable is a risk mitigation technique that can prevent the malware from running on the system, but it does not help the analyst analyze its behavior or determine whether existing endpoint controls are effective. Moreover, blocklisting may not be feasible if each malware sample has a unique hash tied to the user.

C. Deploying a honeypot onto the laptops is a risk mitigation technique that can lure attackers away from the real systems and collect information about their activities, but it does not help the analyst analyze the malware’s behavior or determine whether existing endpoint controls are effective. A honeypot is also more suitable for detecting network-based attacks rather than endpoint-based attacks.

An EDR and whitelist should protect from this attack.

Aligning the impact subscore requirements to the predetermined system categorization can help the analyst get a better picture of the risk while adhering to the organization’s policy. The impact subscore is one of the components of the CVSS base score, which reflects the severity of a vulnerability. The impact subscore is calculated based on three metrics: confidentiality, integrity, and availability. These metrics can be adjusted according to the system categorization, which defines the security objectives and requirements for a system based on its potential impact on an organization’s operations and assets. By aligning the impact subscore requirements to the system categorization, the analyst can ensure that the CVSS scores reflect the true impact of a vulnerability on a specific system and prioritize remediation accordingly. 

A Service Level Agreement is a contract between a service provider and a customer that outlines the level of services to be provided, the metrics by which those services will be measured, and how the agreement will be managed by both parties. SLAs also include provisions for dispute resolution and for the termination of the agreement.

A non-disclosure agreement (NDA) is crucial when external parties are provided access to sensitive company devices or information. The absence of an NDA poses a risk that confidential information could be disclosed by the service provider. Therefore, ensuring an NDA is in place with the company that supports sensitive devices would be a key risk identified in the contract.

An API gateway is a device or software that acts as an intermediary between clients and servers that provide web services through application programming interfaces (APIs). An API gateway can provide various functions such as:

Terminating SSL connections at a central location, reducing the overhead on the backend servers and simplifying certificate management

Managing both authentication and authorization for incoming and outgoing web service calls, enforcing security policies and access control

Advertising the web service API, providing documentation and discovery features for developers and consumers

Implementing DLP and anti-malware features, preventing data leakage and malicious code injection A web application firewall (WAF) is a device or software that filters and blocks malicious web traffic from reaching an application. A WAF can provide some protection for web services, but it does not provide all the functions of an API gateway. An XML gateway is a device or software that validates, transforms, and routes XML messages between clients and servers that provide web services. An XML gateway can provide some functions of an API gateway, but it is limited to XML-based web services and does not support other formats such as JSON. An enterprise service bus (ESB) gateway is a device or software that integrates and orchestrates multiple web services into a single service or application. An ESB gateway can provide some functions of an API gateway, but it is more focused on business logic and workflow rather than security and performance. References: [CompTIA Advanced SecurityPractitioner (CASP+) Certification Exam Objectives], Domain 2: Enterprise Security Architecture, Objective 2.3: Implement solutions for the secure use of cloud services

The Chief Information Security Officer (CISO) should highlight social engineering as an area of increased vulnerability due to the lack of completion of security awareness training by employees. Social engineering attacks exploit human behavior, and employees who are not adequately trained are more likely to fall victim to phishing, pretexting, and other types of social engineering tactics. Increasing awareness and training helps employees recognize and respond appropriately to these threats.

The data owner is best qualified to classify systems and data in accordance with external requirements. The data owner is responsible for determining how data should be classified based on its sensitivity, value, and regulatory requirements. They have the authority to decide on classification levels such as public, confidential, or secret, and ensure compliance with external standards. Other roles, like data custodians or processors, support the implementation of data management, but the data owner has the final responsibility for classification. CASP+ highlights the role of data owners in determining data classification and ensuring compliance with external requirements.

In this case, the security engineer is assessing a web application that uses SAML, and dynamic analysis (also known as DAST – Dynamic Application Security Testing) is the most appropriate method toidentify potential authentication issues. Dynamic analysis tests the application in a runtime environment, allowing the engineer to identify vulnerabilities that arise during actual application execution, such as SAML misconfigurations or other authentication weaknesses. This is more effective for finding authentication issues compared to static analysis, which only reviews code without execution. CASP+ highlights the importance of dynamic testing in identifying real-world vulnerabilities, especially in web applications.

Geofencing to disable mobile and wearable devices prevents the tracking of staff by disabling GPS and other location-based services. This measure aligns with CASP+ objective 3.2, which includes protecting sensitive facilities against surveillance and unauthorized tracking.

The first step in forensic analysis is to collect the most volatile data, which is the information that would be lost when the power is turned off or the system is rebooted. This includes the contents of memory (RAM) and other temporary data that are stored in caches or buffers. A memory dump captures this data and should be done before other less volatile data is collected, like hard drive images or log files, to ensure the most accurate and comprehensive capture of the system's state at the time of the incident.

Segmentation isolates the vulnerable server into a separate network segment, reducing its exposure to potential attackers. By implementing firewalls or virtual LANs (VLANs), segmentation minimizes the risk of lateral movement and external exploitation, aligning with CASP+ objective 1.3, which emphasizes implementing appropriate compensating controls to address vulnerabilities.

________________________________________

A denial of service (DoS) attack is a malicious attempt to disrupt the normal functioning of a server by overwhelming it with requests or traffic1. One possible indicator of a DoS attack is a large number of connections from a single source IP address1. In this case, the output of netstat -an shows that there are many connections from 213.37.55.67 with different port numbers and in TIME WAIT state23. This suggests that the attacker is sending many SYN packets to initiate connections but not completing them, thus exhausting the server’s resources and preventing legitimate users from accessing it1.

The Statement of Work is a document that outlines the scope of the penetration test and defines the objectives, tools, methodology, and targets of the test. It also outlines the security controls that will be impacted by the test and what the expected outcomes are. Additionally, the Statement of Work should include any legal requirements and other considerations that should be taken into account during the penetration test.

Dual control is a security principle that requires two or more authorized individuals to perform a task concurrently. This reduces the risk of fraud, error, or misuse of sensitive assets or information. Verified References: https://www.comptia.org/training/books/casp-cas-004-study-guide , https://www.isaca.org/resources/isaca-journal/issues/2018/volume-1/using-dual-control-to-mitigate-risk

When an EDR (Endpoint Detection and Response) system flags legitimate software as malicious, it is a false positive. This occurs when the EDR incorrectly identifies normal, non-malicious activity as a threat. The scenario described indicates that the development software was blocked even though there were no changes to the software, which suggests a false positive by the EDR system.

Comprehensive and Detailed in-Depth Explanation:

Understanding Vulnerability Scanning Types:

Vulnerability scans can be categorized by two major factors:

Active vs. Passive:

Active Scans:Actively probe the target system, gathering detailed data.

Passive Scans:Monitor network traffic and analyze data without directly probing the system.

Credentialed vs. Non-Credentialed:

Credentialed Scans:Utilize valid user credentials to access system information.

Non-Credentialed Scans:Rely on publicly accessible data and network probing.

Why the Correct Answer is D (An active, credentialed scan):

Anactive, credentialed scancombinesdirect system probingwithauthorized access.

This scan type provides themost accurate and comprehensive data, including:

Configuration settings:Verifies security configurations likefirewall rules, user privileges, and patch levels.

Detailed vulnerability data:Can accessinternal system informationandlog files.

Thorough system analysis:Can enumeratesoftware versions, system settings, and misconfigurations.

Credentialed scans canaccess local configuration filesandOS-level data, giving afull pictureof the system's security posture.

Example Scenario:

A systems administrator wants to verify thatall systems are patchedand properly configured according tocompany policies.

Anactive, credentialed scancan log into each system anddirectly check patch versionsandconfiguration files, while anon-credentialed scanwould only be able to detect open ports and basic system information.

Why the Other Options Are Incorrect:

A. A passive, credentialed scan:

Passive scansdo not interact directlywith the system, even if credentials are available.

Theylack accuracyin identifyingconfiguration settingssince they onlymonitor traffic.

B. A passive, non-credentialed scan:

This method is theleast accurateas it onlymonitors network trafficwithout logging into systems.

Providessurface-level informationand is typically used fordetecting anomaliesrather than deep scanning.

C. An active, non-credentialed scan:

Whileactive scanningprovides some detail,non-credentialed scansare limited toexternal checks.

They can detectopen ports and basic vulnerabilitiesbutcannot access internal configurationsor system files.

Key Differences:

Scan Type

Accuracy for Configuration Data

Intrusiveness

Use Case

Passive, Credentialed

Low

Low

Network monitoring

Passive, Non-Credentialed

Very Low

Low

Anomaly detection

Active, Non-Credentialed

Medium

High

Initial vulnerability assessment

Active, Credentialed

High

High

Comprehensive vulnerability analysis

Best Practice:

Always useactive, credentialed scansforin-depth vulnerability assessment, especially when accuracy inconfiguration validationis essential.

Ensure thatcredentials providedfor scanning haveread-only permissionsto minimize risk.

Extract from CompTIA SecurityX CAS-005 Study Guide:

TheCompTIA SecurityX CAS-005 Official Study Guidehighlights thatactive, credentialed vulnerability scansare the most thorough and accurate. These scans canaccess system configurations, file permissions, and patch levels, which are crucial formaintaining system security. Non-credentialed scans, while useful forsurface-level checks, do not provide the same level of insight.

The primary goal of an after-action review (AAR) is to evaluate the response to an incident critically and identify what was done well and what could be improved. An AAR is a structured review or de-brief process for analyzing what happened, why it happened, and how it can be done better by the participants and those responsible for the project or event.

To meet the requirements for authentication using trusted third parties and session maintenance, SAML (Security Assertion Markup Language) and JWT (JSON Web Token) are the best options. SAML is widely used for single sign-on (SSO) and federated authentication, allowing users to authenticate with an external identity provider (trusted third party). JWT is commonly used for maintaining authenticated sessions across web applications and is well-suited for long-term session management, like the six-month duration mentioned. Together, these solutions meet the requirements for standards-based authentication and long-lasting sessions. CASP+ discusses the role of SAML in federated identity management and JWT in token-based authentication.

User and entity behavior analytics (UEBA) is the best solution to monitor and detect unusual or malicious activity by privileged users who failed the phishing exercise. UEBA uses machine learning and behavioral analytics to establish a baseline of normal activity and identify anomalies that indicate potential threats. UEBA can help detect compromised credentials, insider threats, and advanced persistent threats that may evade traditional security solutions. The other options are either irrelevant or less effective for the given scenario. 

The concern is users operating in a spit tunnel config which is what is being described. Using a Full Tunnel would route traffic from all applications through a single tunnel. https://cybernews.com/what-is-vpn/split-tunneling/

The clients may not trust idapt by default because it is a self-signed certificate authority that is not in the trusted root store of the clients. Secure LDAP does not support wildcard certificates because they do not match the fully qualified domain name of the server. Verified References: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-401/ldap-and-secure-ldap/ , https://www.comptia.org/training/books/casp-cas-004-study-guide

A single-tenancy SaaS solution is the best solution for this company. SaaS stands for software as a service, which is a cloud-based model that allows customers to access applications hosted by a provider over the internet. A single-tenancy SaaS solution means that the company has its own dedicated instance of the application and its underlying infrastructure, which offers more control, customization, and security than a multi-tenancy SaaS solution where multiple customers share the same resources. A single-tenancy SaaS solution also eliminates the need for managing a private cloud or an on-premises infrastructure. Verified References: https://www.comptia.org/training/books/casp-cas-004-study-guide , https://www.ibm.com/cloud/learn/saas

Code Snippet 1

Vulnerability 1: SQL injection

SQL injection is a type of attack that exploits a vulnerability in the code that interacts with a database. An attacker can inject malicious SQL commands into the input fields, such asusername or password, and execute them on the database server. This can result in data theft, data corruption, or unauthorized access.

Fix 1: Perform input sanitization of the userid field.

Input sanitization is a technique that prevents SQL injection by validating and filtering the user input values before passing them to the database. The input sanitization should remove any special characters, such as quotes, semicolons, or dashes, that can alter the intended SQL query. Alternatively, the input sanitization can use a whitelist of allowed values and reject any other values.

Code Snippet 2

Vulnerability 2: Cross-site request forgery

Cross-site request forgery (CSRF) is a type of attack that exploits a vulnerability in the code that handles web requests. An attacker can trick a user into sending a malicious web request to a server that performs an action on behalf of the user, such as changing their password, transferring funds, or deleting data. This can result in unauthorized actions, data loss, or account compromise.

Fix 2: Implement anti-forgery tokens.

Anti-forgery tokens are techniques that prevent CSRF by adding a unique and secret value to each web request that is generated by the server and verified by the server before performing the action. The anti-forgery token should be different for each user and each session, and should not be predictable or reusable by an attacker. This way, only legitimate web requests from the user’s browser can be accepted by the server.

The tools that can be used to provide key information in the risk register are SCAP scanner and vulnerability scanner. SCAP stands for Security Content Automation Protocol, which is a set of standards and specifications for automating the management of security configuration, vulnerability assessment, and compliance evaluation. SCAP scanner is a tool that can scan systems and networks for security issues based on SCAP content. Vulnerability scanner is a tool that can scan systems and networks for known vulnerabilities and weaknesses. These tools canhelp the security analyst identify and prioritize the risks associated with the systems and networks, as well as provide possible remediation actions. Verified References:

https://www.techtarget.com/searchsecurity/definition/Security-Content-Automation-Protocol

https://learn.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/security/fundamentals/vulnerability-management

https://www.techtarget.com/searchsecurity/definition/vulnerability-scanner

Reviewing video from IP cameras within the facility would be the most likely process to expose an attacker who has compromised an air-gapped system. Since air-gapped systems are isolated from external networks, an attacker would need physical access to the system or use some covert channel to communicate with it. Video surveillance could reveal any unauthorized or suspicious activity within the facility that could be related to the attack. Verified References:

https://www.welivesecurity.com/wp-content/uploads/2021/12/eset_jumping_the_air_gap_wp.pdf

https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Air-Gap_Malware

https://www.techtarget.com/searchsecurity/essentialguide/How-air-gap-attacks-challenge-the-notion-of-secure-networks

The consultant should use the customer-provided VDI solution to perform work on the customer’s environment. VDI stands for virtual desktop infrastructure, which is a technology that allows users to access a virtual desktop hosted on a remote server. VDI can help meet the customer’s requirements by ensuring that all customer data remains under the customer’s control at all times, that third-party access to the customer environment is controlled by the customer, and that authentication credentials and access control are under the customer’s control. Verified References:

https://www.kaspersky.com/resource-center/threats/how-to-avoid-social-engineering-attacks

https://www.eccouncil.org/cybersecurity-exchange/ethical-hacking/understanding-preventing-social-engineering-attacks/

https://www.indusface.com/blog/10-ways-businesses-can-prevent-social-engineering-attacks/

An ISA, or interconnection security agreement, is a document that should be required to set up a dedicated VPN between two entities that provide specialized help desk services. An ISA defines the technical and security requirements for establishing, operating, and maintaining a secure connection between two or more organizations. An ISA also specifies the roles and responsibilities of each party, the security controls and policies to be implemented, the data types and classifications to be exchanged, and the incident response procedures to be followed.

In a PaaS implementation, the provider offers relief to the organization’s teams by sharing in many of the operational duties related to the application/platform software. The provider is responsible for securing and maintaining the underlying infrastructure, operating systems, middleware, runtime environments, and other software components that support the platform and the applications running on it. The provider also handles tasks such as patching, updating, scaling, and backing up the platform software.

A. Application-specific data assets are the responsibility of the organization in a PaaS implementation. The organization owns and controls its own data and must ensure its confidentiality, integrity, and availability. The organization must also comply with any applicable data protection laws and regulations.

B. Application user access management is the responsibility of the organization in a PaaS implementation. The organization must define and enforce its own policies and procedures for granting, revoking, and monitoring access to its applications and data. The organization must alsoensure that its users follow security best practices such as strong passwords and multifactor authentication.

C. Application-specific logic and code are the responsibility of the organization in a PaaS implementation. The organization must develop, test, deploy, and manage its own applications using the tools and services provided by the platform. The organization must also ensure that its applications are secure, reliable, and performant.

https://www.techtarget.com/searchcloudcomputing/feature/The-cloud-shared-responsibility-model-for-IaaS-PaaS-and-SaaS

Netstat is a command-line tool that can be used to find the malicious process that is using a specific port on a Windows workstation. Netstat displays active TCP connections, ports on which the computer is listening, Ethernet statistics, the IP routing table, IPv4 statistics (for the IP, ICMP, TCP, and UDP protocols), and IPv6 statistics (for the IPv6, ICMPv6, TCP over IPv6, and UDP over IPv6 protocols). To find the process that is using a specific port, such as TCP 40322, the security engineer can use the following command:

netstat -ano | findstr :40322

This command will filter the netstat output by the port number and show the process identifier (PID) of the process that is using that port. The security engineer can then use the task manager or another tool to identify and terminate the malicious process by its PID. Verified References:

https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/windows-server/administration/windows-commands/netstat

https://www.howtogeek.com/28609/how-can-i-tell-what-is-listening-on-a-tcpip-port-in-windows/

Least privilege, policy automation, and continuous validation are some of the key elements that need to be implemented to achieve the objective of transitioning to a zero trust architecture. Zero trust architecture is a security model that assumes no implicit trust for any entity or resource, regardless of their location or ownership. Zero trust architecture requires verifying every request and transaction before granting access or allowing data transfer. Zero trust architecture also requires minimizing the attack surface and reducing the risk of lateral movement by attackers.

A. Least privilege is a principle that states that every entity or resource should only have the minimum level of access or permissions necessary to perform its function. Least privilege can help enforce granular and dynamic policies that limit the exposure and impact of potential breaches. Least privilege can also help prevent privilege escalation and abuse by malicious insiders or compromised accounts.

C. Policy automation is a process that enables the creation, enforcement, and management of security policies using automated tools and workflows. Policy automation can help simplify and streamline the implementation of zero trust architecture by reducing human errors, inconsistencies, and delays. Policy automation can also help adapt to changing conditions and requirements by updating and applying policies in real time.

F. Continuous validation is a process that involves verifying the identity, context, and risk level of every request and transaction throughout its lifecycle. Continuous validation can help ensure that only authorized and legitimate requests and transactions are allowed to access or transfer data. Continuous validation can also help detect and respond to anomalies or threats by revoking access or terminating sessions if the risk level changes.

B. VPN is not an element that needs to be implemented to achieve the objective of transitioning to a zero trust architecture. VPN stands for Virtual Private Network, which is a technology that creates a secure tunnel between a device and a network over the internet. VPN can provide confidentiality, integrity, and authentication for network communications, but it does not providezero trust security by itself. VPN still relies on network-based perimeters and does not verify every request or transaction at a granular level.

D. PKI is not an element that needs to be implemented to achieve the objective of transitioning to a zero trust architecture. PKI stands for Public Key Infrastructure, which is a system that manages the creation, distribution, and verification of certificates. Certificates are digital documents that contain public keys and identity information of their owners. Certificates can be used to prove the identity and authenticity of the certificate holders, as well as to encrypt and sign data. PKI can provide encryption and authentication for data communications, but it does not provide zero trust security by itself. PKI still relies on trusted authorities and does not verify every request or transaction at a granular level.

E. Firewall is not an element that needs to be implemented to achieve the objective of transitioning to a zero trust architecture. Firewall is a device or software that monitors and controls incoming and outgoing network traffic based on predefined rules. Firewall can provide protection against unauthorized or malicious network access, but it does not provide zero trust security by itself. Firewall still relies on network-based perimeters and does not verify every request or transaction at a granular level.

G. Continuous integration is not an element that needs to be implemented to achieve the objective of transitioning to a zero trust architecture. Continuous integration is a software development practice that involves merging code changes from multiple developers into a shared repository frequently and automatically. Continuous integration can help improve the quality, reliability, and performance of software products, but it does not provide zero trust security by itself. Continuous integration still relies on code-based quality assurance and does not verify every request or transaction at a granular level.

H. IaaS is not an element that needs to be implemented to achieve the objective of transitioning to a zero trust architecture. IaaS stands for Infrastructure as a Service, which is a cloud computing model that provides virtualized computing resources over the internet. IaaS can provide scalability, flexibility, and cost-efficiency for IT infrastructure, but it does not provide zero trust security by itself. IaaS still relies on cloud-based security controls and does not verify every request or transaction at a granular level.

The methods that can be used to protect user internet privacy, to ensure the connection is encrypted, and to keep user activity hidden are proxy and MAC address randomization. A proxy is a server that acts as an intermediary between a user and the internet, hiding the user’s IP address and location from websites and other online services. A proxy can also encrypt the connection between the user and the proxy server, preventing anyone from snooping on the user’s traffic. MAC address randomization is a feature that changes the MAC address of a mobile device periodically or when connecting to different networks. A MAC address is a unique identifier of a network interface that can be used to track the device’s location and activity. MAC address randomization can help protect the user’s privacy by making it harder for third parties to link the device to a specific user or network. Verified References:

https://www.techtarget.com/searchsecurity/definition/proxy-server

https://www.techtarget.com/searchnetworking/definition/MAC-address-randomization

https://www.techtarget.com/searchsecurity/definition/MAC-address-Media-Access-Control-address

MITRE ATT&CK is a threat management framework that provides a comprehensive and detailed knowledge base of adversary tactics and techniques based on real-world observations. It can help security analysts to identify, understand, and prioritize potential threats, as well as to develop effective detection and response strategies. MITRE ATT&CK covers the entire lifecycle of a cyberattack, from initial access to impact, and provides information on how to mitigate, detect, and hunt for each technique. It also includes threat actor profiles, software descriptions, and data sources that can be used for threat intelligence and analysis. MITRE ATT&CK is the most likely resource that a security analyst would adopt to implement the most up-to-date and effective security methodologies for their clients. Verified References:

https://attack.mitre.org/

https://resources.infosecinstitute.com/topic/top-threat-modeling-frameworks-stride-owasp-top-10-mitre-attck-framework/

The indicator that shows when a company might not be viable after a disaster is the maximum tolerable downtime (MTD). MTD is the maximum amount of time that a business process or function can be disrupted without causing unacceptable consequences for the organization. MTD is a key metric for business continuity planning and disaster recovery, as it helps determine the recovery time objective (RTO) and the recovery point objective (RPO) for each process or function. If the actual downtime exceeds the MTD, the organization may face severe losses, reputational damage, regulatory penalties, or even bankruptcy. Verified References:

https://www.techtarget.com/searchdisasterrecovery/definition/maximum-tolerable-downtime

https://www.techtarget.com/searchdisasterrecovery/definition/recovery-time-objective

https://www.techtarget.com/searchdisasterrecovery/definition/recovery-point-objective

Configuring user settings in Group Policy is the best way for an administrator to implement the decision to restrict PowerShell access to only administrators. Group Policy is a feature of Windows that allows administrators to manage and enforce settings for users and computers in a domain. By using Group Policy, an administrator can create a policy that blocks or disables PowerShell for all users except for a particular group, such as administrators. This policy can be applied to all computers in the domain or to specific organizational units. This method is more effective and manageable than uninstalling PowerShell, monitoring event logs, providing user education, or blocking PowerShell via HIDS. Verified References:

https://www.windowscentral.com/how-disable-powershell-windows-10

https://learn.microsoft.com/en-us/answers/questions/195218/how-to-restrict-powershell-for-all-users-except-fo

https://windowsloop.com/block-disable-powershell/

OS credential dumping is the process of obtaining account login and password information, normally in the form of a hash or a clear text password, from the operating system and software. System information discovery is the process of gathering information about the system, such as hostname, IP address, OS version, running processes, etc. Both of these techniques are commonly used by adversaries to gain access to sensitive data and resources on the target system. The command shown in the image is using Mimikatz, a tool that can dump credentials from memory, and also querying the system information using WMIC. Verified References:

https://attack.mitre.org/techniques/T1003/

https://attack.mitre.org/techniques/T1082/

https://github.com/gentilkiwi/mimikatz

https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/windows/win32/wmisdk/wmic

Key escrow is the system responsible for storing private encryption/decryption files with a third party to ensure these files are stored safely. Key escrow is an arrangement in which the keys needed to decrypt encrypted data are held in escrow by a trusted third party that can release them under certain conditions. Key escrow can be useful for backup or recovery purposes, or for complying with legal or regulatory requirements that may demand access to encrypted data.

B. TPM is not the system responsible for storing private encryption/decryption files with a third party to ensure these files are stored safely. TPM stands for Trusted Platform Module, which is a hardware device that provides secure storage and generation of cryptographic keys on a computer. TPM does not involve any third party or escrow service.

C. Trust models are not the system responsible for storing private encryption/decryption files with a third party to ensure these files are stored safely. Trust models are frameworks that define how entities can establish and maintain trust relationships in a network or system. Trust models do not necessarily involve any third party or escrow service.

D. Code signing is not the system responsible for storing private encryption/decryption files with a third party to ensure these files are stored safely. Code signing is a process of using digital signatures to verify the authenticity and integrity of software code. Code signing does not involve any third party or escrow service.

The most likely cause of the error is the failure of TPM authentication. TPM stands for Trusted Platform Module, which is a hardware component that stores encryption keys and other security information. TPM can be used by BitLocker to protect the encryption keys and verify the integrity of the boot process. If TPM fails to authenticate the laptop, BitLocker will enter recovery mode and ask for a recovery PIN, which is a 48-digit numerical password that can be used to unlock the system. The administrator should check the TPM status and configuration and make sure it is working properly. Verified References:

https://support.microsoft.com/en-us/windows/finding-your-bitlocker-recovery-key-in-windows-6b71ad27-0b89-ea08-f143-056f5ab347d6

https://learn.microsoft.com/en-us/windows/security/operating-system-security/data-protection/bitlocker/bitlocker-recovery-guide-plan

https://docs.sophos.com/esg/sgn/8-1/user/win/en-us/esg/SafeGuard-Enterprise/tasks/BitLockerRecoveryKey.html

SaaS, or software as a service, is the solution that can best fulfill the requirements of having the lowest RTO possible, the least shared responsibility possible, and patching as a responsibility of the CSP. SaaS is a cloud service model that provides users with access to software applications hosted and managed by the CSP over the internet. SaaS has the lowest RTO (recovery time objective), which is the maximum acceptable time for restoring a system or service after a disruption, because it does not require any installation, configuration, or maintenance by the users. SaaS also has the least shared responsibility possible because most of the security aspects are handled by the CSP, such as patching, updating, backup, encryption, authentication, etc.

The three metric groups that are needed to calculate CVSS scores are Base, Temporal, and Environmental. The Base metrics represent the intrinsic characteristics of a vulnerability that are constant over time and across user environments. The Temporal metrics represent the characteristics of a vulnerability that may change over time but not across user environments. The Environmental metrics represent the characteristics of a vulnerability that are relevant and unique to a particular user’s environment. Verified References:

https://nvd.nist.gov/vuln-metrics/cvss

https://www.first.org/cvss/specification-document

Public keys on both endpoints are required for implementing PKI-based mutual authentication. PKI stands for Public Key Infrastructure, which is a system that manages the creation, distribution, and verification of certificates. Certificates are digital documents that contain public keys and identity information of their owners. Certificates are issued by trusted authorities called Certificate Authorities (CAs), and can be used to prove the identity and authenticity of the certificate holders. Mutual authentication is a process in which two parties authenticate each other at the same time using certificates. Mutual authentication can provide stronger security and privacy than one-way authentication, where only one party is authenticated. In PKI-based mutual authentication, each party has a certificate that contains its public key and identity information, and a private key that corresponds to its public key. The private key is kept secret and nevershared with anyone, while the public key is shared and used to verify the identity and signature of the certificate holder. The basic steps of PKI-based mutual authentication are as follows:

Party A sends its certificate to Party B.

Party B verifies Party A’s certificate by checking its validity, signature, and trust chain. If the certificate is valid and trusted, Party B extracts Party A’s public key from the certificate.

Party B generates a random challenge (such as a nonce or a timestamp) and encrypts it with Party A’s public key. Party B sends the encrypted challenge to Party A.

Party A decrypts the challenge with its private key and sends it back to Party B.

Party B compares the received challenge with the original one. If they match, Party B confirms that Party A is the legitimate owner of the certificate and has possession of the private key.

The same steps are repeated in reverse, with Party A verifying Party B’s certificate and sending a challenge encrypted with Party B’s public key.

A. Perfect forward secrecy on both endpoints is not required for implementing PKI-based mutual authentication. Perfect forward secrecy (PFS) is a property of encryption protocols that ensures that the compromise of a long-term secret key (such as a private key) does not affect the security of past or future session keys (such as symmetric keys). PFS can enhance the security and privacy of encrypted communications, but it does not provide authentication by itself.

B. Shared secret for both endpoints is not required for implementing PKI-based mutual authentication. Shared secret is a method of authentication that relies on a pre-shared piece of information (such as a password or a passphrase) that is known only to both parties. Shared secret can provide simple and fast authentication, but it does not provide non-repudiation or identity verification.

D. A common public key on each endpoint is not required for implementing PKI-based mutual authentication. A common public key on each endpoint would imply that both parties share the same certificate and private key, which would defeat the purpose of PKI-based mutual authentication. Each party should have its own unique certificate and private key that proves its identity and authenticity.

E. A common private key on each endpoint is not required for implementing PKI-based mutual authentication. A common private key on each endpoint would imply that both parties share the same certificate and public key, which would defeat the purpose of PKI-based mutual authentication. Each party should have its own unique certificate and private key that proves its identity and authenticity.

Order of volatility is a procedure that a computer forensics examiner must follow during evidence collection. It refers to the order in which digital evidence is collected, starting with the most volatile and moving to the least volatile. Volatile data is data that is not permanent and is easily lost, such as data in memory when you turn off a computer. The security analyst should have followed the order of volatility to preserve the most fragile evidence first, such as the malicious script running as a background process, before turning off the infected machine. Verified References:

https://www.computer-forensics-recruiter.com/order-of-volatility/

https://www.sans.org/blog/best-practices-in-digital-evidence-collection/

https://blogs.getcertifiedgetahead.com/order-of-volatility/

Cipher feedback (CFB) is a mode of operation for block ciphers that allows them to encrypt streaming data. CFB uses an initialization vector (IV) and a block cipher to generate a keystream that is XORed with the plaintext to produce the ciphertext. CFB has low latency because it can encrypt each byte or bit of plaintext as soon as it arrives, without waiting for a full block. CFB is suitable for streaming data because it does not require padding or block synchronization.

B. Cipher block chaining message authentication code (CBC-MAC) is a mode of operation for block ciphers that provides both encryption and authentication. CBC-MAC uses an IV and a block cipher toencrypt the plaintext and generate a MAC value that is appended to the ciphertext. CBC-MAC has high latency because it requires the entire message to be processed before generating the MAC value. CBC-MAC is not suitable for streaming data because it requires padding and block synchronization.

C. Cipher block chaining (CBC) is a mode of operation for block ciphers that provides encryption only. CBC uses an IV and a block cipher to encrypt each block of plaintext by XORing it with the previous ciphertext block. CBC has high latency because it requires a full block of plaintext before encryption. CBC is not suitable for streaming data because it requires padding and block synchronization.

D. Electronic codebook (ECB) is a mode of operation for block ciphers that provides encryption only. ECB uses a block cipher to encrypt each block of plaintext independently. ECB has low latency because it can encrypt each block of plaintext as soon as it arrives. However, ECB is not suitable for streaming data because it requires padding and block synchronization. Moreover, ECB is insecure because it does not use an IV and produces identical ciphertext blocks for identical plaintext blocks.

The company should use CASB for OAuth application permission control to help prevent this type of attack in the future. CASB stands for cloud access security broker, which is a software tool that monitors and enforces security policies for cloud applications. CASB can help control which third-party applications can access the company’s cloud file storage service and what permissions they have. CASB can also detect and block any unauthorized or malicious applications that try to access the company’s data. Verified References:

https://www.kaspersky.com/resource-center/threats/how-to-avoid-social-engineering-attacks

https://www.eccouncil.org/cybersecurity-exchange/ethical-hacking/understanding-preventing-social-engineering-attacks/

https://www.indusface.com/blog/10-ways-businesses-can-prevent-social-engineering-attacks/

The administrator should use SAN certificates to support multiple domain names while minimizing the amount of certificates needed. SAN stands for Subject Alternative Name, which is an extension of a certificate that allows it to include multiple fully-qualified domain names (FQDNs) within the same certificate. For example, a SAN certificate can secure www.example.com, www.example.net, and mail.example.org with one certificate. SANcertificates can reduce the cost and complexity of managing multiple certificates for different domains. SAN certificates can also support wildcard domains, such as *.example.com, which can cover any subdomain under that domain. Verified References:

https://www.techtarget.com/searchsecurity/definition/Subject-Alternative-Name

https://www.techtarget.com/searchsecurity/definition/wildcard-certificate

https://www.nexcess.net/help/what-is-a-multi-domain-ssl-certificate/

WAP A: No issue found. The WAP A is configured correctly and meets the requirements.

PC A = Enable host-based firewall to block all traffic

This option will turn off the host-based firewall and allow all traffic to pass through. This will comply with the requirement and also improve the connectivity of PC A to other devices on the network. However, this option will also reduce the security of PC A and make it more vulnerable to attacks. Therefore, it is recommended to use other security measures, such as antivirus, encryption, and password complexity, to protect PC A from potential threats.

Laptop A: Patch management

This option will install the updates that are available for Laptop A and ensure that it has the most recent security patches and bug fixes. This will comply with the requirement and also improve the performance and stability of Laptop A. However, this option may also require a reboot of Laptop A and some downtime during the update process. Therefore, it is recommended to backup any important data and close any open applications before applying the updates.

Switch A: No issue found. The Switch A is configured correctly and meets the requirements.

Switch B: No issue found. The Switch B is configured correctly and meets the requirements.

Laptop B: Disable unneeded services

This option will stop and disable the telnet service that is using port 23 on Laptop B. Telnet is a cleartext service that transmits data in plain text over the network, which exposes it to eavesdropping, interception, and modification by attackers. By disabling the telnet service, you will comply with the requirement and also improve the security of Laptop B. However, this option may also affect the functionality of Laptop B if it needs to use telnet for remote administration or other purposes. Therefore, it is recommended to use a secure alternative to telnet, such as SSH or HTTPS, that encrypts the data in transit.

PC B: Enable disk encryption

This option will encrypt the HDD of PC B using a tool such as BitLocker or VeraCrypt. Disk encryption is a technique that protects data at rest by converting it into an unreadable format that can only be decrypted with a valid key or password. By enabling disk encryption, you will comply with the requirement and also improve the confidentiality and integrity of PC B’s data. However, this option may also affect the performance and usability of PC B, as it requires additional processing time and user authentication to access the encrypted data. Therefore, it is recommended to backup any important data and choose a strong key or password before encrypting the disk.

PC C: Disable unneeded services

This option will stop and disable the SSH daemon that is using port 22 on PC C. SSH is a secure service that allows remote access and command execution over an encrypted channel. However, port 22 is the default and well-known port for SSH, which makes it a common target for brute-force attacks and port scanning. By disabling the SSH daemon on port 22, you will comply with the requirement and also improve the security of PC C. However, this option may also affect the functionality of PC C if it needs to use SSH for remote administration or other purposes. Therefore, it is recommended to enable the SSH daemon on a different port, such as 4022, by editing the configuration file using the following command:

sudo nano /etc/ssh/sshd_config

Server A. Need to select the following:

The security analyst acknowledges this alert because it is a false positive. A false positive is an event classification that indicates a benign or normal activity is mistakenly flagged as malicious or suspicious by the SIEM system. A false positive can occur due to misconfigured rules, outdated signatures, or faulty algorithms. A false positive can waste the security analyst’s time and resources, so it is important to acknowledge and dismiss it after verifying that it is not a real threat. Verified References:

https://www.ibm.com/topics/siem

https://www.microsoft.com/en-us/security/business/security-101/what-is-siem

https://www.splunk.com/en_us/data-insider/what-is-siem.html

The process that involves searching and collecting evidence during an investigation or lawsuit is e-discovery. E-discovery stands for electronic discovery, which is the process of identifying, preserving, collecting, processing, reviewing, analyzing, and producing electronically stored information (ESI) that is relevant to a legal matter. E-discovery can be used for civil litigation, criminal prosecution, regulatory compliance, internal investigations, and other purposes. E-discovery can help parties obtain evidence from various sources, such as emails, documents, databases, social media, cloud services, mobile devices, and others. Verified References:

https://www.techtarget.com/searchsecurity/definition/electronic-discovery

https://www.edrm.net/frameworks-and-standards/edrm-model/

https://www.law.cornell.edu/wex/electronic_discovery_(federal)

Purchasing one wildcard certificate is the best solution to protect multiple websites hosted by an organization in a cloud-hosted WAF. A wildcard certificate is a type of SSL/TLS certificate thatcan secure a domain name and any number of its subdomains with a single certificate. For example, a wildcard certificate for *.mycompany.com can secure www.mycompany.com, campus.mycompany.com, and any other subdomain under mycompany.com. A wildcard certificate can save costs and simplify management compared to purchasing individual certificates for each website.

The company should use an additional layer of encryption to secure the data from theft when moving to a CSP. Encryption is a process of transforming data into an unreadable format using a secret key. Encryption can protect the data from unauthorized access or modification during transit and at rest. Encryption can be applied at different levels, such as disk, file, or application. An additional layer of encryption can provide an extra security measure on top of the encryption provided by the CSP. Verified References:

https://learn.microsoft.com/en-us/partner-center/transition-seat-based-services

https://cloud.google.com/architecture/patterns-for-connecting-other-csps-with-gcp

The organization’s new email system should provide e-discovery functionality. E-discovery stands for electronic discovery, which is the process of identifying, preserving, collecting, processing, reviewing, analyzing, and producing electronically stored information (ESI) that is relevant to a legal matter. E-discovery can help the organization comply with legal holds, which are orders or notices to preserve relevant ESI when litigation is anticipated or ongoing. E-discovery can also help the organization reduce the costs and risks of litigation, as well as improve the efficiency and accuracy of the discovery process. Verified References:

https://www.techtarget.com/searchsecurity/definition/electronic-discovery

https://www.techtarget.com/searchsecurity/definition/legal-hold

https://www.ibm.com/topics/electronic-discovery

The browser is the application that the security analyst should patch first, given that all the applications have equally high CVSS scores. CVSS stands for Common Vulnerability Scoring System, which is a method for measuring the severity of vulnerabilities based on various factors,such as access conditions, impact, and exploitability. CVSS scores range from 0 to 10, with higher scores indicating higher severity. However, CVSS scores alone are not sufficient to determine the patching priority, asthey do not account for other factors, such as the likelihood of exploitation, the exposure of the system, or the criticality of the data. Therefore, the security analyst should also consider the context and the risk of each application when deciding which one to patch first. In this case, the browser is likely to be the most exposed and frequently used application by the network administrator, and also the most likely entry point for an attacker to compromise the system or access the SSO web portal. Therefore, patching the browser first can reduce the risk of a successful attack and protect the system and the data from further damage. Verified References:

https://nvd.nist.gov/vuln-metrics/cvss

https://www.darkreading.com/risk/vulnerability-severity-scores-make-for-poor-patching-priority-researchers-find

A SOAR (Security Orchestration, Automation, and Response) solution is a software platform that can automate the detection and response of known threats, such as ransomware, phishing, ordenial-of-service attacks. A SOAR solution can also integrate with other security tools, such as IPS, NGFW, SIEM, and threat feeds, to provide a comprehensive and dynamic security posture. A SOAR solution would best satisfy the requirements of the online file hosting service, because it would:

Remediate threats to customer data integrity and availability first, by automatically applying predefined actions or workflows based on the severity and type of the threat.

Allow the environment to be dynamic to match increasing customer demands, by scaling up or down the security resources and processes as needed.

Not interfere with customers’ ability to access their data at anytime, by minimizing the human intervention and downtime required for threat response.

Enable security analysts to focus on high-risk items, by reducing the manual tasks and alert fatigue associated with threat detection and response.

Containerization is a technology that allows applications to run in isolated and portable environments called containers. Containers are lightweight and self-contained units that include all the dependencies, libraries, and configuration files needed for an application to run. Containers can be deployed on any platform that supports the container runtime engine, such as Docker or Kubernetes.

Containerization would allow the company to refactor a monolithic application to take advantage of cloud native services and service microsegmentation to secure sensitive application components, because containerization would:

Enable the application to be split into smaller and independent components (microservices) that can communicate with each other through APIs or message queues.

Allow the application to leverage cloud native services, such as load balancers, databases, or serverless functions, that can be integrated with containers through configuration files or environment variables.

Enhance the security of the application by isolating each container from other containers and the host system, and applying fine-grained access control policies and network rules to each container or group of containers.

Ensure the portability of the application by enabling it to run on any cloud provider or platform that supports containers, without requiring any changes to the application code or configuration.

Remote access services deployed using vendor-diverse redundancy with event response driven by playbooks is the best solution to meet the requirements. Vendor-diverse redundancy means using different vendors or technologies to provide the same service or function, which can increase the availability and resilience of the service. For example, if one vendor’s VPN solution fails due to a zero-day vulnerability, another vendor’s VPN solution can take over without affecting the users. Event response driven by playbooks means using predefined workflows or scripts to automate the actions or decisions that need to be taken in response to certain events or triggers. For example, a playbook can define how to switch between different remote access solutions based on certain criteria or conditions, such as performance, availability, security, or manual input. Playbooks can also be integrated with SOAR platforms to leverage their capabilities for orchestration, automation, and response. Verified References:

https://cyware.com/security-guides/security-orchestration-automation-and-response/what-is-vendor-agnostic-security-orchestration-automation-and-response-soar-40e4

https://www.paloaltonetworks.com/cyberpedia/what-is-a-security-playbook

The developer would most likely implement a Root CA in the autonomous vehicle’s software. A Root CA is the top-level authority in a PKI that issues and validates certificates for subordinate CAs or end entities. A Root CA can be self-signed and embedded in the vehicle’s software, which would reduce the need for external communication and verification. A Root CA would also enable the vehicle to use digital signatures and encryption for secure communication with other vehicles or infrastructure. Verified References:

https://cse.iitkgp.ac.in/~abhij/publications/PKI++.pdf

https://www.digicert.com/blog/connected-cars-need-security-use-pki

https://ieeexplore.ieee.org/document/9822667/

A risk associated with SDN is the expanded attack surface that it introduces. SDN is a network architecture that decouples the control plane from the data plane, allowing centralized and programmable management of network devices and traffic. However, this also exposes new attack vectors and vulnerabilities that can compromise the security and performance of the network. For example, an attacker can target the SDN controller, which is the core component that communicates with and controls the network devices. A successful attack on the SDN controller can result in denial of service, unauthorized access, data leakage, or network hijacking. An attacker can also exploit the communication channels between the SDN controller and the network devices, such as the OpenFlow protocol, to intercept, modify, or inject malicious messages or commands. Additionally, an attacker can leverage malicious or compromised applications that run on top of the SDN controller to manipulate or disrupt the network behavior. Verified References:

https://www.isaca.org/resources/isaca-journal/issues/2016/volume-4/benefits-and-the-security-risk-of-software-defined-networking

https://link.springer.com/article/10.1007/s40860-022-00171-8

DMARC (Domain-based Message Authentication, Reporting and Conformance) and SPF (Sender Policy Framework) are two mechanisms that can help detect and prevent email spoofing, which is the creation of email messages with a forged sender address. DMARC allows a domain owner to publish a policy that specifies how receivers should handle messages that fail authentication tests, such as SPF or DKIM (DomainKeys Identified Mail). SPF allows a domain owner to specify which mail servers are authorized to send email on behalf of their domain. By checking the DMARC and SPF records of the sender’s domain, a receiver can verify if the email is from a legitimate source or not. Verified References:

https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Email_spoofing

https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/DMARC

https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Sender_Policy_Framework

A static code analyzer is a tool that analyzes computer software without actually running the software. A static code analyzer can help developers find and fix vulnerabilities, bugs, and security risks in their new applications while the source code is in its ‘static’ state. A static code analyzer can help ensure that the code has close to zero defects and zero vulnerabilities by checking the code against a set of coding rules, standards, and best practices. A static code analyzer can also help improve the code quality, performance, and maintainability.

A. An open-source automation server is not a tool that can help ensure that the code has close to zero defects and zero vulnerabilities. An open-source automation server is a tool that automates various tasks related to software development and delivery, such as building, testing, deploying, and monitoring. An open-source automation server can help speed up the CI/CD pipeline, but it does not analyze or improve the code itself.

C. Trusted open-source libraries are not tools that can help ensure that the code has close to zero defects and zero vulnerabilities. Trusted open-source libraries are collections of reusable code that developers can use to implement common or complex functionalities in their applications. Trusted open-source libraries can help save time and effort for developers, but they do not guarantee that the code is free of defects or vulnerabilities.

D. A single code repository for all developers is not a tool that can help ensure that the code has close to zero defects and zero vulnerabilities. A single code repository for all developers is a centralized storage location where developers can access and manage their source code files. A single code repository for all developers can help facilitate collaboration and version control, but it does not analyze or improve the code itself.

https://www.comparitech.com/net-admin/best-static-code-analysis-tools/

https://www.perforce.com/blog/sca/what-static-analysis

A secrets management tool is a tool that helps companies securely store, transmit, and manage sensitive digital authentication credentials such as passwords, keys, tokens, certificates, and other secrets. A secrets management tool can help prevent secrets sprawl, enforce business policies, and inject secrets into pipelines. A secrets management tool can also help protect secrets from unauthorized access, leakage, or compromise by using encryption, tokenization, access control, auditing, and rotation. A secrets management tool is a recommended solution for replacing the company’s monolithic software application with a containerized solution, because it can provide a centralized and consistent way to manage secrets across multiple containers and environments.

B. Saving secrets in key escrow is not a recommended solution for replacing the company’s monolithic software application with a containerized solution, because it does not address the operational challenges of managing secrets for containers. Key escrow is a process of storing cryptographic keys with a trusted third party that can release them under certain conditions. Key escrow can be useful for backup or recovery purposes, but it does not provide the same level of security and automation as a secrets management tool.

C. Storing the secrets inside the Dockerfiles is not a recommended solution for replacing the company’s monolithic software application with a containerized solution, because it exposes the secretsto anyone who can access the Dockerfiles or the images built from them. Storing secrets inside the Dockerfiles is equivalent to hardcoding them into the application code, which is a bad practice that violates the principle of least privilege and increases the risk of secrets leakage or compromise.

D. Running all Dockerfiles in a randomized namespace is not a recommended solution for replacing the company’s monolithic software application with a containerized solution, becauseit does not address the issue of storing and managing secrets for containers. Running Dockerfiles in a randomized namespace is a technique to avoid name conflicts and collisions between containers, but it does not provide any security benefits for secrets.

The company should use HMAC SHA256 as a cryptographic technique to ensure that packets received between two parties have not been tampered with and the connection remains private. HMAC stands for hash-based message authentication code, which is a method of generating a message authentication code using a cryptographic hash function and a secret key. HMAC can provide both integrity and authenticity of the packets, as well as resistance to replay attacks. SHA256 is a specific hash function that produces a 256-bit output. SHA256 is considered secure and widely used in various cryptographic applications. Verified References:

https://www.ericsson.com/en/blog/2021/7/cryptography-and-privacy-protecting-private-data

https://www.mdpi.com/journal/cryptography/special_issues/Preserve_Enhance_Privacy

https://link.springer.com/article/10.1007/s11432-021-3393-x

A tabletop exercise is a type of testing plan that is used to discuss disaster recovery scenarios with representatives from multiple departments within an incident response team but without taking any invasive actions. A tabletop exercise is a simulation of a potential disaster or incident that involves a verbal or written discussion of how each department would respond to it. The purpose of a tabletop exercise is to identify gaps, weaknesses, or conflicts in the disaster recovery plan, and to improve communication and coordination among the team members.

Implementing an ongoing, third-party software and library review and regression testing is the best way to maximize risk reduction from vulnerabilities introduced by OpenSSL. Third-party software and libraries are often used by developers to save time and resources, but they may also introduce security risks if they are not properly maintained and updated. By reviewing and testing the third-party softwareand library regularly, the company can ensure that they are using the latest and most secure version of OpenSSL, and that their proprietary software is compatible and functional with it.

Wireless network auto joining is the mobile configuration setting that the mobile administrator is verifying by reviewing the mobile device DHCP logs. Wireless network auto joining is a feature that allows mobile devices to automatically connect to a predefined wireless network without requiring user intervention or authentication. This can be useful for corporate or trusted networks that need frequent access by mobile devices. The DHCP logs show that the mobile devices are assigned IP addresses from the wireless network with SSID “CorpWiFi”, which indicates that they are auto joining this network.

WPA3-Personal is a simple, secure solution for a small business with a single access point. It uses a new security protocol called Simultaneous Authentication of Equals (SAE), which replaces the Pre-Shared Key (PSK) exchange with a more secure way to do initial key exchange. SAE also provides forward secrecy, which means that even if the password is compromised, the attacker cannot decrypt past or future data. WPA3-Personal also uses AES-128 in CCM mode as the minimum encryption algorithm, which is resistant to offline password attacks. WPA3-Personal requires low administrative overhead and supports a single SSID with no guest access. Verified References:

https://www.diffen.com/difference/WPA2_vs_WPA3

https://www.thewindowsclub.com/wpa3-personal-enterprise-wi-fi-encryption

https://www.teldat.com/blog/wpa3-wi-fi-network-security-wpa3-personal-wpa3-enterprise/

The company should implement an EV certificate and HSTS on its new website. An EV certificate provides the highest level of web identity validation by requiring extensive verification of the organization’s identity and domain ownership. HSTS enforces encryption of all web transactions by redirecting HTTP requests to HTTPS and preventing users from accepting invalid certificates. These solutions would enhance the security and trustworthiness of the website without increasing complexity or expenditure significantly. Verified References:

https://www.entrust.com/digital-security/certificate-solutions/products/digital-certificates/tls-ssl-certificates

https://learn.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/active-directory/develop/access-tokens

Homomorphic encryption is a type of encryption method that allows computations to be performed on encrypted data without first decrypting it with a secret key. The results of the computations also remain encrypted and can only be decrypted by the owner of the private key. Homomorphic encryption can be used for privacy-preserving outsourced storage and computation. This means that data can be encrypted and sent to a cloud service provider (CSP) for processing, without revealing any information to the CSP or anyone else who might intercept the data. Homomorphic encryption can enable new services and applications that require processing confidential data on a large number of resources, such as machine learning, data analytics, health care, finance, and voting.

A. Processing data on a server after decrypting in order to prevent unauthorized access in transit is not a common use case for homomorphic encryption, because it does not take advantage of the main feature of homomorphic encryption, which is computing over encrypted data. This use casecan be achieved by using any standard encryption method that provides confidentiality for data in transit.

B. Maintaining the confidentiality of data both at rest and in transit to and from a CSP for processing is not a common use case for homomorphic encryption, because it does not take advantage of the main feature of homomorphic encryption, which is computing over encrypted data. This use case can be achieved by using any standard encryption method that provides confidentiality for data at rest and in transit.

D. Storing proprietary data across multiple nodes in a private cloud to prevent access by unauthenticated users is not a common use case for homomorphic encryption, because it does not involve any computation over encrypted data. This use case can be achieved by using any standard encryption method that provides confidentiality for data at rest.

https://www.splunk.com/en_us/blog/learn/homomorphic-encryption.html

https://research.aimultiple.com/homomorphic-encryption/

Defining ACLs in a CSP relies on software-defined networking. Software-defined networking (SDN) is a network architecture that decouples the control plane from the data plane, allowing for centralized and programmable network management. SDN can enable dynamic and flexible network configuration and optimization, as well as improved security and performance. In a CSP, SDN can be used to define ACLs that can apply to virtual networks, subnets, or interfaces, regardless of the physical infrastructure. SDN can also allow for granular and consistent ACL enforcement across different cloud services and regions. Verified References:

https://www.techtarget.com/searchsdn/definition/software-defined-networking-SDN

https://learn.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/architecture/guide/networking/network-security

https://www.techtarget.com/searchcloudcomputing/definition/cloud-networking

The root cause of this issue is that the iOS keychain imported only the client public and private keys, but not the CA certificate. A PKCS#12 file (.p12 or .pfx) is a file format that contains a certificate and its private key, optionally protected by a password. A PKCS#12 file can also contain intermediate certificates or root certificates that are needed to verify the certificate chain. However, when importing a PKCS#12 file into the iOS keychain, only the certificate and its private key are imported, not the CA certificate. This means that the iOS device cannot verify the authenticity of the certificate, and displays the error message “mbedTLS: ca certificate undefined”. To fix this issue, the CA certificate needs to be imported separately into the iOS keychain, either manually or using a configuration profile. Verified References:

https://developer.apple.com/documentation/devicemanagement/certificatepkcs12

https://support.apple.com/guide/deployment/distribute-certificates-depcdc9a6a3f/web

https://openvpn.net/faq/how-do-i-use-a-client-certificate-and-private-key-from-the-ios-keychain/

Rate limiting is a technique that can limit the number or frequency of requests that a client can make to an API (application programming interface) within a given time frame. This can help remedy the performance issues caused by high CPU utilization on the servers that host the APIs, as it can prevent excessive or abusive requests that could overload the servers. Implementing geoblocking on the WAF (web application firewall) may not help remedy the performance issues, as it could block legitimate requests based on geographic location, not on request rate. Implementing OAuth 2.0 on the API may not help remedy the performance issues, as OAuth 2.0 is a protocol for authorizing access to APIs, not for limiting requests. Implementing input validation on the API may not help remedy the performance issues, as input validation is a technique for preventing invalid or malicious input from reaching the API, not for limiting requests. Verified References: https://www.comptia.org/blog/what-is-rate-limiting https://partners.comptia.org/docs/default-source/resources/casp-content-guide