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4A0-C02 Nokia SRA Composite Exam Questions and Answers

Questions 4

Which of the following is TRUE?

Options:

A.

There can only be one community associated with a route.

B.

Community is an optional non-transitive attribute.

C.

Community is an optional transitive attribute.

D.

Community is a well-known discretionary attribute.

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Questions 5

Based upon the exhibit, which of the following statements about LAG 1 is TRUE?

Options:

A.

PE1 is the master.

B.

The system-ID used by the CE device is 60:2c:ff:00:00:00.

C.

The Admin Key used by the CE device is 40000.

D.

There is a configuration error between the two MC peers.

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Questions 6

In a Carrier Supporting Carrier (CSC) VPRN, which of the following is NOT a benefit to the network provider?

Options:

A.

The solution scales as the number of VPNs offered by the customer carriers increases.

B.

The solution scales as the number of end-customer routes increases.

C.

There is no need to manage end-customer services.

D.

The solution scales as the number of serviced customer carriers increases.

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Questions 7

Click the exhibit.

How many route targets and route distinguishers are required to implement the extranet VPRN?

Options:

A.

Three route targets and three route distinguishers

B.

Five route targets and three route distinguishers

C.

Three route targets and two route distinguishers

D.

Five route targets and two route distinguishers

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Questions 8

Click the exhibit.

If the displayed command is executed, what is the correct value of AS-Path in the BGP route 172.12.0.0/16 advertised by PE2?

Options:

A.

64491 {64492 64493}

B.

64491

C.

64492 64493 64491

D.

{64492 64493)64491

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Questions 9

Which of the following fields in frames belonging to a Layer 3 service CANNOT be marked or remarked on SAP-egress?

Options:

A.

Dotlp

B.

EXP

C.

DSCP

D.

PREC

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Questions 10

Which of the following statements are TRUE? (Choose two)

Options:

A.

The primary contributors to latency are distance, scheduling, and congestion.

B.

The weighted round robin scheduling algorithm will result in more delay for high priority traffic than the regular round robin algorithm.

C.

The round robin scheduling algorithm will result in less jitter for low priority traffic than a strict priority scheduler.

D.

Packet loss can be reduced by decreasing the amount of buffer space available to a queue.

E.

Latency can be reduced by increasing the amount of buffer space available to a queue.

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Questions 11

Click the exhibit button below. Given the SAP-ingress policy, which of the following statements are FALSE? (Choose three)

Options:

A.

Queue 5 is using priority mode.

B.

UDP traffic can be serviced at a maximum rate of 20 Mbps.

C.

Ping traffic is place in queue 5.

D.

Queues 5 and 6 will receive equal portions of any remaining available bandwidth to meet their above-CIR bandwidth requirements.

E.

Queue 3 is scheduled before queue 5.

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Questions 12

Which of the following are examples of metrics for QoS?

Options:

A.

Signal degradation, attenuation, line loss

B.

Latency, FIFO, WRED

C.

Delay, jitter, packet loss

D.

SNR, queue depth, latency

E.

Attenuation, dispersion, latency

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Questions 13

Which of the following about a single-homed AS is FALSE?

Options:

A.

A single-homed AS is also known as a stub AS.

B.

A single-homed AS is also known as a leaf AS.

C.

A single-homed AS uses either the ISP AS number or a private AS number.

D.

A single-homed AS can be either transit or non-transit

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Questions 14

When allocating scheduling resources, which of the following statements BEST describes how the egress port scheduler allocates bandwidth?

Options:

A.

The egress port scheduler takes the ratio of requested bandwidth to total bandwidth request from all children. It allocates bandwidth fairly, using these percentages and not exceeding the egress interface speed.

B.

The egress port scheduler allocates bandwidth based on a WRR distribution method that takes into account the CIR and PIR requested at each level and the max speed, either default or configured, on egress.

C.

The egress port scheduler allocates bandwidth on a first come, first served distribution method that takes into account the total CIR and PIR requested at each level and the max PIR requested from a single level.

D.

The egress port scheduler will limit the bandwidth offered to the egress port based on the over-subscription factor, provisioned under the router interface, while using a WRR scheduler for the remaining bandwidth.

E.

The egress port scheduler will use the Russian Dolls Method to allocate bandwidth to each level of requested bandwidth. HPO-Only is automatically set to 100%, allowing only high priority traffic to be buffered during congestion.

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Questions 15

Which of the following are entities of the Alcatel-Lucent 7750 SR on which you can NOT apply a network-queue policy? (Choose three)

Options:

A.

Router interfaces

B.

Ingress MDA

C.

Ingress Ethernet network ports

D.

Egress Ethernet network ports

E.

Service SAPs

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Questions 16

Forwarding subclasses are only relevant to, and are therefore applied within the context of, a _____________policy.

Options:

A.

network

B.

scheduling

C.

slope

D.

SAP-ingress

E.

network-queue

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Questions 17

Which of the following are the minimum requirements needed to classify traffic marked with DSCP AF11, AF12, and AF13 into the AF forwarding class and provide fair treatment to the drop precedence settings? (Choose three)

Options:

A.

Profile mode queues

B.

Priority mode queues

C.

1 queue

D.

3 queues

E.

3 forwarding classes

F.

1 forwarding class, with 2 subclasses

G.

1 forwarding class, with 3 subclasses

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Questions 18

Which of the following BEST describes a SAP when regarding QoS?

Options:

A.

A point in the network where EXP bits can be mapped to one of eight predefined FCs, each one with its own queue.

B.

A logical point in a service tunnel where all of customer traffic is aggregated.

C.

A point at which the initial classification of customer traffic occurs.

D.

A point in the network where QoS parameters are discarded in favor of lower-level hardware queuing functions, such as LLI (Link Layer Interleave).

E.

A point in the network where traffic flows from multiple different services are queued together, based on forwarding class.

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Questions 19

Which priority-mode queue parameter may influence both the profile marking, and scheduling priority of a queue?

Options:

A.

PIR

B.

CIR

C.

MBS

D.

burst-limit

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Questions 20

According to the SAP-egress policy configured and applied, which queue will EF traffic use?

Options:

A.

Queue 2 in "policer-output-queues," the default queue group used by policers on egress, because there are no queues in the "qg-10" queue-group template.

B.

The local SAP's queue 1, because there is no queue in the "qg-10" queue-group template for EF traffic.

C.

Queue 1 in the "qg-10" queue-group, because it exists by default and all traffic is mapped to it.

D.

EF traffic is dropped because there are no queues in the "qg-10" queue-group template.

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Questions 21

Click the exhibit button below. Traffic arriving at router PE 1 is marked with a dot1p value of 4. Given the network policies applied on the routers in the diagram below, what is the EXP value of packets arriving at router PE 2?

Note: Only relevant portions of the network policy are shown.

Options:

A.

2

B.

3

C.

5

D.

6

E.

None of the above.

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Questions 22

According to the SAP-ingress QoS policy shown, what needs to be the depth of the CIR bucket of policer 5, as a minimum, for forwarded packets to start being marked as out-of-profile?

Options:

A.

1,000 tokens

B.

2,000 tokens

C.

10,000 tokens

D.

20,000 tokens

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Questions 23

Which of the following statements regarding egress FC and profile over-ride are TRUE? (Choose two)

Options:

A.

Packets can be classified into 16 different FCs when using priority mode queuing.

B.

This feature is available on egress SAPs within any service.

C.

MPLS EXP bits can be changed based on multi-field classification.

D.

If a Behavior Aggregate (BA) and Multi-field (MF) match occurs, only the MF override parameters will take effect.

E.

If a Behavior Aggregate (BA) and Multi-field (MF) match occurs, the BA classification can override the forwarding class while the MF classification can override the profile.

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Questions 24

Click the exhibit button below. Given the output of the #show pools 1/2/2 network-egress command on a GigE port, what can the service provider deduce? (Choose two)

Options:

A.

QoS is not configured on the router.

B.

Packets in forwarding classes "be" and "12" are being queued.

C.

Traffic belonging to forwarding class "ef" is not experiencing queuing delays.

D.

Traffic belonging to forwarding class "11 "will never make use of the shared buffer pool.

E.

Out-of-profile traffic in the shared buffer pool is being dropped.

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Questions 25

When using an egress port scheduler, on which scheduling loop are orphaned queues serviced?

Options:

A.

Level 8 within CIR.

B.

Level 8 between CIR and PIR.

C.

Level 8, once all PIR is serviced.

D.

Level 1 within CIR.

E.

Level 1 between CIR and PIR.

F.

Level 1, once all PIR is serviced.

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Questions 26

Click the exhibit.

If router A originates a BGP route for prefix 192.168.0.1/27, what will the update contain when it reaches router B?

Options:

A.

AS Path of 65200, Next Hop of router A, Origin of IGP.

B.

AS Path of 65200, Next Hop of router A, Origin of incomplete.

C.

Null AS Path, Next Hop of router A, Origin of IGP.

D.

Null AS Path, Next Hop of router A, Origin of incomplete.

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Questions 27

Click the exhibit.

Router R1 is a route reflector with clients R2, R5 and R6. Prefixes advertised by router R5 have a local preference of 200. Router R3 advertises the prefix 192.168.1.0/27 to routers R5 and R6.

Assuming that none of the routers in AS 65540 is configured with "advertise-external", what is the expected output of "show router bgp routes" on router R2?

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

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Questions 28

A router in AS 65100 receives three routes for 138.120.0.0/16. The first route has an AS Path of 65200 65400 65300 and a local preference of 150. The second route has an AS Path of 65200 65300 and a local preference of 100. The third route has an AS Path of 65600 65300 and a local preference of 100. Which route will appear in the RIB-out?

Options:

A.

Only the first route will appear in the RIB-Out.

B.

Only the second route will appear in the RIB-Out.

C.

Only the third route will appear in the RIB-Out.

D.

All routes will appear in the RIB-Out.

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Questions 29

An Alcatel-Lucent 7750 SR receives a route from an eBGP peer with a MED value of 500. What

MED value is sent to iBGP peers?

Options:

A.

100

B.

The IGP cost

C.

500

D.

None

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Questions 30

Which of the following regarding BGP authentication on the Alcatel-Lucent 7750 SR is FALSE?

Options:

A.

Authentication is performed before establishing the BGP session.

B.

Authentication can only be configuredon the group or neighbor level.

C.

By default, MD5 authentication is disabled.

D.

Peer authentication may be optionally requested in an open message.

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Questions 31

Which of the following prefix-lists is the most specific match for prefixes 192.168.64.1/20 and

192.168.32.5/19?

Options:

A.

Prefix 192.168.0.0/17 longer.

B.

Prefix 192.168.0.0/19 longer.

C.

Prefix 192.168.96.0/19 longer.

D.

Prefix 192.168.0.0/18 longer.

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Questions 32

A physical port has three associated buffer pools. Which of the following buffer pool combinations is associated to a physical port?

Options:

A.

Access ingress, access egress, network egress

B.

Access ingress, network ingress, network egress

C.

Port ingress, port egress, shared bi-directional

D.

Port ingress, port egress, network egress

E.

Port ingress, network ingress, network egress

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Questions 33

In which of the following scenarios is self-generated traffic QoS (sgt-QoS) useful?

Options:

A.

EXP markings on transit control traffic are not set correctly.

B.

The priority of all self-generated traffic needs to be lowered to allow all other traffic to take precedence.

C.

The priority of various control packets requires special treatment throughout the network.

D.

The BGP process is consuming too many CPU cycles and is impacting OSPF performance.

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Questions 34

Two Alcatel-Lucent 7750 SRs are established BGP peers with the following add-paths configuration:

R1: configure router bgp add-paths ipv4 send 4 receive

R2: configure router bgp add-paths ipv4 send 2

If router R1 advertises three routes for a given prefix X, how many routes is router R2 expected to have for prefix X?

Options:

A.

None

B.

2

C.

3

D.

4

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Questions 35

Without_______, a customer's high priority traffic can be dropped before its low priority traffic.

Options:

A.

packet filtering

B.

prioritization of traffic flows

C.

least cost routing

D.

OAM functionality

E.

separation between the data plane and the control plane

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Questions 36

If traffic is destined to queue 5, which has a high-priority-only value of 0 in the network-queue policy, all out-of-profile packets will be dropped.

Options:

A.

TRUE

B.

FALSE

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Questions 37

Which of the following AS Paths will match the regular expression "65100."?

Options:

A.

"65100"

B.

"65100 65200''

C.

"65200 65100"

D.

"65100 65250 65200"

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Questions 38

A service provider is using GRE for his transport tunnel on the Alcatel-Lucent 7750 SR. How can traffic be marked as it traverses the service provider's network? (Choose two)

Options:

A.

Using dot1p bits of the 802.1q Ethernet frame header

B.

Using DSCP bits within the ToS field of the IP packet header.

C.

Using the IP precedence bits within the ToS field of the IP packet header.

D.

Using the CLP bit of the ATM cell header.

E.

Using the EXP bits of the MPLS transport label header.

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Questions 39

Which of the following statements best describes the output from an Alcatel-Lucent 7750 SR shown below?

Options:

A.

The As-Path is not present as it was removed with the s-override configuration command

B.

The As-Path is not present as it was removed with the o-as-path configuration command

C.

The As-Path is not present as a policy was configured to set it to the null value

D.

The As-Path is not present as VPN-IPv4 routes do not propagate the IPv4 As-Path BGP attribute

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Questions 40

Click the exhibit.

For the inter-AS model C VPRN, which of the following is FALSE when an IP packet is sent from 192.1.1.1 to 192.2.1.1?

Options:

A.

PE1 pushes two labels on the IP packet and forwards it to ASBR1.

B.

ASBR1 pops the LDP label, swaps the BGP label and forwards the IP packet to ASBR2.

C.

ASBR2 forwards the IP packet with two labels to PE2.

D.

PE2 pops the labels and forwards the unlabeled IP packet to its destination.

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Questions 41

Click the exhibit.

A Carrier Supporting Carrier (CSC) VPRN is configured on an Alcatel-Lucent 7750 SR for a customer carrier who is an Internet Service Provider (ISP). Which of the following configuration steps is NOT required?

Options:

A.

Configuring iBGP sessions between PEs residing in different customer carrier sites,

B.

Configuring a policy on each CSC-CE to advertise local PE addresses to the network provider.

C.

Configuring a CSC VPRN on each CSC-PE with a SAP interface towards the attached CSC-CE.

D.

Configuring an IES service on PEL

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Questions 42

Click the exhibit.

Assuming that the as-override command is used, what is the most likely location of prefix 10.1.2.0/24?

Options:

A.

The prefix is located in an Autonomous System directly connected to this router.

B.

There is a single Autonomous System between the local AS and the AS that originated the prefix.

C.

There are two Autonomous Systems between the local AS and the AS that originated the prefix.

D.

The prefix is located in Autonomous System 65100.

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Questions 43

What is the purpose of the Nokia SR design that includes, for every ingress unicast queue, one hardware queue per destination forwarding complex (FFPC)?

Options:

A.

To utilize memory resources efficiently

B.

To avoid Head of Line blocking

C.

To achieve more granularity of QoS control

D.

To make hierarchical scheduling/policing possible

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Questions 44

Click the exhibit.

Given that ISP 1 and ISP 2 are Tier 2 providers, and that ISP 3 and ISP 4 are Tier 1 providers, what is the most likely relationship between the ISPs?

Options:

A.

ISP 1 and ISP 2 have a public transit relationship, while ISP 3 and ISP 4 have a private transit relationship.

B.

ISP 1 and ISP 2 have a private transit relationship, while ISP 3 and ISP 4 have a public transit relationship.

C.

ISP 1 and ISP 2 have a private peering relationship, while ISP 3 and ISP 4 have a public peering relationship.

D.

ISP 1 and ISP 2 have a public peering relationship, while ISP 3 and ISP 4 have a private peering relationship.

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Questions 45

Click the exhibit.

Considering that both routers C and D are advertising the eBGP learned prefix 10.5.0.0/16 into

ISP X, which of the following best describes the route advertisement within ISP X?

Options:

A.

Router C sends the update to routers E and F only.

B.

Router C sends the update to routers D, E and F.

C.

Router C sends the update to routers A, B, E and F.

D.

Router C sends the update to routers A, B, D, E and F.

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Questions 46

The configuration of an Alcatel-Lucent 7750 SR is given below. Router Rl has established BGP sessions with routers R2 and R3. Which of the following is TRUE?

Options:

A.

Router R1forms an iBGP session with router R2, and an eBGP session with router R3.

B.

Router R1forms iBGP sessions with routers R2 and R3.

C.

Router R1forms eBGP sessions with routers R2 and R3.

D.

The types of BGP sessions with routers R2 and R3 cannot be determined.

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Questions 47

What are the well-known mandatory BGP attributes?

Options:

A.

Origin, Next Hop and Local Preference.

B.

Local preference, AS Path and Next Hop.

C.

Aggregator, Next Hop and AS Path.

D.

AS Path, Next Hop and Origin.

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Questions 48

Click the exhibit.

Router R6 is a route reflector with clients R1, R2, R4 and R5. R4 receives three routes from router R6 and is configured with ECMP 3. Given the following BGP configuration on router R4, how many primary and backup paths will be present in router R4's BGP routing table?

Options:

A.

Two primary paths and one backup path.

B.

One primary path and two backup paths.

C.

Three primary path and one backup path,

D.

Three primary paths.

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Questions 49

Which of the following must be true in order to add a port to a LAG? (Choose 2)

Options:

A.

ports must be on the same MDA

B.

ports must have the same speed and duplex settings

C.

auto negotiation must be on

D.

auto negotiation must be off or limited

E.

port must be in access mode only

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Questions 50

An Alcatel-Lucent 7750 SR receives a route from an iBGP peer with a MED value of 500. What

MED value is sent to eBGP peers?

Options:

A.

100

B.

The IGP cost

C.

500

D.

None

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Questions 51

Which of the following about eiBGP Load Balancing is FALSE?

Options:

A.

ecmp and multipath must be configured within the VPRN instance.

B.

The RD of the VPRN on the local PE must be different from the RD of the remote PEs.

C.

Is enabled in the config>router>bgp context

D.

Allows a PE router to load share traffic across routes learned from both direct CE-PE peerings and MP-BGP peerings.

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Questions 52

Click the exhibit.

Assuming that none of the routers within AS 65200 is configured with next-hop-self", what will the BGP update for the 192.168.0.1/27 prefix contain when it arrives at router B?

Options:

A.

AS Path of 65200 65100, Next Hop of router A.

B.

AS Path of 65200 65100, Next Hop of router E.

C.

AS Path of 65100, Next Hop of router E.

D.

AS Path of 65100, Next Hop of router A.

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Questions 53

In a VPRN that uses MPLS transport tunnels, which of the following is NOT configured on the PE device?

Options:

A.

MP-BGP for exchanging customer routes with other PEs.

B.

A routing protocol for exchanging customer routes with the CE.

C.

A label signaling protocol for defining transport tunnels between the PE and CE.

D.

MPLS for exchanging labels with other provider core devices.

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Questions 54

What kind of BGP attribute is the Local Preference?

Options:

A.

Optional transitive attribute.

B.

Optional non-transitive attribute.

C.

Well-known mandatory attribute.

D.

Well-known discretionary attribute.

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Questions 55

Which of the following statements regarding the Internet is FALSE?

Options:

A.

It is a global network relying on interconnections provided by Internet service providers.

B.

It is a continuous and interconnected set of public IP networks, advertised and shared across the globe.

C.

It is a settlement-free global network that provides interconnection between Internet service providers.

D.

It is a network that allows any Internet service provider to reach every other Internet service provider in the world.

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Questions 56

Based on the VPRN BGP decision process, which of the following routes is selected first?

Options:

A.

The route with the lowest MED.

B.

The route with the shortest AS Path.

C.

The route received from the lowest peer IP address.

D.

The route with the lowest Origin.

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Questions 57

Click the exhibit.

An Alcatel-Lucent 7750 SR is to be configured as a PE router that supports VPRNs using LDP as the transport protocol. Which of the following best describes this configuration?

Options:

A.

This configuration is correct and complete.

B.

This configuration is correct, except that the system interface must be added.

C.

This configuration is correct, except that the interfaces facing the CE routers must be added.

D.

MPLS configuration is not required.

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Questions 58

Click the exhibit.

Community lists are configured for the PE hub and spoke VPRN. Which communities should be exported by the VPRN service on PE1?

Options:

A.

"Spoke.Sites" and "Hub_Site"

B.

"Spoke_Sites"

C.

"Hub_Site"

D.

No communities should be exported

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Questions 59

When an Alcatel-Lucent 7750 SR receives a BGP update containing an AS-Path loop, what is the default action?

Options:

A.

The update is accepted and the route installed in the route table.

B.

The update is accepted but the route will not be installed in the route table

C.

The update is rejected

D.

The peer session is dropped

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Questions 60

VPN-IPv4 addressing is made unique by defining an address structure consisting of:

Options:

A.

A 32 bit IPv4 address followed by a 64 bit Route Target

B.

A 32 bit IPv4 address followed by a 64 bit Route Distinguisher

C.

A 64 bit Route Target followed by a 32 bit IPv4 address

D.

A 64 bit Route Distinguisher followed by a 32 bit IPv4 address

E.

A 32 bit Route Distinguisher followed by a 32 bit IPv4 address FA 32 bit Route Target followed by a 32 bit IPv4 address

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Questions 61

The policies shown below from the configuration of an Alcatel-Lucent 7750 SR have been created to implement an Extranet VPRN between the main sites of two separate VPRNs. How should these policies be applied?

Options:

A.

ample Policy should be applied as an export policy on the PE connected to the main site of Customer 1

B.

ample Policy 3 should be applied as an export policy on the PE connected to the main site of Customer 2

C.

ample Policy 3 should be applied as an export policy on both PEs connected to the main site of Customer 1 and the main site of Customer 2

D.

ample Policy should be applied as an export policy on both PEs connected to the main site of Customer 1 and the main site of Customer 2

E.

ample Policy should be applied as an export policy on all PEs connected to sites of Customer 1

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Questions 62

Which of the following about inter-AS model B VPRN is TRUE?

Options:

A.

The ASBRs use MP-eBGP to peer with each other and exchange IPv4 routes between autonomous systems.

B.

The ASBRs use MP-iBGP to peer with PE routers in their autonomous system and exchange VPN-IPv4 routes.

C.

The ASBRs maintain a mapping of labels for IPv4 routes exchanged between autonomous systems.

D.

The ASBRs require per-VPRN configuration.

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Questions 63

After configuring OSPF as the PE to CE routing protocol for a VPRN service you get the following output from an Alcatel-Lucent 7750 SR: What is most likely wrong with the configuration?

Options:

A.

OSPF is not configured on the CE router

B.

There is a problem with OSPF authentication

C.

The operational MTU does not match

D.

The PE and CE router have different OSPF interface types configured

E.

None of the above

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Questions 64

What action will be taken when an MPLS router receives a frame with a label that does not exist in the LFIB?

Options:

A.

The frame will be flooded.

B.

The frame will be discarded.

C.

The frame will be fragmented.

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Questions 65

MC-LAG provides link and node protection from an MDU to 3 or more PE devices.

Options:

A.

TRUE

B.

FALSE

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Questions 66

What of the following is a key benefit of Active/Standby pseudowires?

Options:

A.

The MDU does not need to support MPLS.

B.

Can be used in ring networks of 4 or more nodes

C.

Does not require the use of a layer 2 loop prevention protocol such as RSTP

D.

The MDU does not have to be aware of the active/standby configuration

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Questions 67

Click on the exhibit below.

Given the following configuration, which service type will VPLS 1 and VPLS 100 be displayed as with the "show service service-using" command?

Options:

A.

VPLS 1 will be displayed as mVPLS and VPLS 100 will be displayed as VPLS.

B.

VPLS 1 will be displayed as mVPLS and VPLS 100 will be displayed as uVPLS

C.

VPLS 1 will be displayed as VPLS and VPLS 100 will be displayed as VPLS.

D.

VPLS 1 will displayed VPLS and VPLS 100 will be displayed as uVPLS.

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Questions 68

Why is MAC explosion a factor to be considered when designing a large VPLS network? (Choose 2)

Options:

A.

The time to relearn thousands of MAC addresses may result in excessive flooding or loss of packets.

B.

If the FDB reaches the limit, the router will discard frames.

C.

Discarding frames when the FDB limit is reached could deny SLA guarantees.

D.

It could take several seconds to relearn thousands of MAC addresses denying QoS/SLA guarantees.

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Questions 69

Which of the following describes the scope of the IEEE 802.3ah EFM standard? (Choose 3)

Options:

A.

Monitor and troubleshoot a point-to-point full-duplex link.

B.

Monitor and troubleshoot end-to-end services.

C.

Can be used at the core to trigger MPLS protection mechanisms when a physical failure detection is not possible.

D.

Should not be used at the core to trigger MPLS protection. BFD is the only method that can be used when physical failure detection is not possible.

E.

Valuable in the last-mile connection to the Service Provider demarcation device.

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Questions 70

The FDB has learned 2 MAC addresses. The first is from a device accessible via a locality defined SAP, the second is from a device accessible via an SDP. Both MAC addresses were learned at the exact same time. If all traffic from these hosts stops at the same time, which address will age out first from the FDB based on default settings?

Options:

A.

MAC learned via SAP

B.

MAC learned via SDP

C.

There is not enough information to determine

D.

Both will timeout at the same time

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Questions 71

Click on the exhibit below.

If the SDP between R2 and R1 goes down, what devices will be reachable from R2 through the VPLS?

Options:

A.

Only R4 will be reachable through the VPLS.

B All devices will be reachable through the VPLS.

B.

R4 and R3 will remain reachable.

C.

No devices will be reachable.

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Questions 72

If a management VPLS is administratively disabled what will be the status of the associated user VPLS SAPs?

Options:

A.

Regular semantics will apply. It will be as if the SAP doesn't belong to a management VPLS.

B.

All user VPLS SAPs will be disabled/pruned.

C.

It is not possible to administratively disable a management VPLS.

D.

Spanning tree will be automatically enabled on the user VPLS SAPs.

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Questions 73

Which method does the Alcatel-Lucent 7750 SR use for the allocation of VPRN labels?

Options:

A.

One label per route

B.

One label per next-hop

C.

One label per VRF

D.

One label per prefix

E.

One label per tunnel

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Questions 74

Which of the following best describes the goal of an Extranet VPRN?

Options:

A.

Allow routes to be exchanged between all or selected sites of one VPRN and all or selected sites of a second VPRN

B.

Allow the service provider to provide multiple VPRNs with Internet access

C.

Reduce the number of VPRN tunnels required

D.

Simplify the administration of multiple VPRNs

E.

Force all traffic in multiple VPRNs to pass through a single device

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Questions 75

Which of the following about BGP loops in a VPRN environment is TRUE?

Options:

A.

Traditional BGP loop detection mechanisms are unable to detect a loop in a VPRN scenario.

B.

BGP loops are detected in a VPRN when the customer has separate sites using the same BGP autonomous system number.

C.

The Alcatel-Lucent 7750 SR rejects routes containing AS_PATH loops by default.

D.

When "remove-private" is configured at a PE, all routes received from the associated CE will have private AS numbers removed.

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Questions 76

Click the exhibit.

A Carrier Supporting Carrier (CSC) VPRN is configured for a customer carrier who is an Internet Service Provider (ISP). Which of the following about route distribution is FALSE?

Options:

A.

The VRF 10 on CSC-PE1 includes PE1 and PE2's system addresses.

B.

The global routing table of PE1 includes PE2's system address.

C.

The VRF 10 on CSC-PE2 includes CEI'S address.

D.

The global routing table of PE2 includes CE1's address.

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Questions 77

Click the exhibit.

Assume all router-IDs are properly configured, and IPv6 link-local addresses are used to establish all eBGP sessions. Given the following iBGP configuration on router A, what is the Next Hop for prefix 2001:DB8:A:401::1/128 on router B?

Options:

A.

The IPv6 link-local address of the router D interface towards router A.

B.

The IPv6 link-local address of the router A interface towards router D.

C.

The IPv6 global address of router A.

D.

The IPv6 global address of router D.

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Questions 78

Click the exhibit.

Router R2 is advertising prefix 192.168.1.0/27 with community "no-advertise" towards AS 65002.

Which routers receive an update for that prefix?

Options:

A.

Router R3 only.

B.

Routers R3 and R4 only.

C.

Routers R3, R4 and R5 only.

D.

Router R2 does not advertise an update for the prefix.

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Questions 79

Which of the following statements regarding route reflectors is TRUE?

Options:

A.

Route reflectors propagate BGP learned routes to their clients.

B.

Route reflectors require "n" iBGP sessions, where "n" is the number of BGP routers in the AS.

C.

Route reflectors disable iBGP split horizon for all iBGP peers in the AS.

D.

Route reflectors do not work in conjunction with confederations.

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Questions 80

Click the exhibit.

Routers RR1 and RR2 are route reflectors with the same cluster-ID. How many updates for prefix 192.168.1.0/27 are received at router RR1?

Options:

A.

1

B.

2

C.

3

D.

4

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Questions 81

Which of the following is the minimum requirement for an AS to be considered multi-homed?

Options:

A.

A single connection to a single service provider.

B.

Two connections to a single service provider.

C.

Two connections to two different service providers.

D.

Multiple connections to different service providers.

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Questions 82

Click on the exhibit below.

Based on the output below which of the following statements is true?

Options:

A.

This Bridge is furthest from the Root Bridge within the VPLS mesh.

B.

This Bridge is the Root Bridge.

C.

SAP 1/1/1 is an Edge Port.

D.

This Bridge is closest to the Root Bridge within the VPLS mesh.

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Questions 83

How can one ensure that a specific switch will be select as root in an STP network?

Options:

A.

Set the bridge priority to 131071.

B.

Set the bridge priority to 0.

C.

Set the bridge priority to 32768.

D.

Leave the bridge priority as the default.

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Questions 84

Click on the exhibit below.

A new site is added to PE-D of Metro B. Which of the following statement below is true?

Options:

A.

If a spoke-SDP is configured between the new site and PE-D no further SDPs will be required.

B.

If a mesh- SDP is configured between the new site and PE-D no further SDPs will be required.

C.

A mesh- SDP must be configured between the new site and all other PEs within Metro B.

D.

A spoke- SDP must be configured between the new site and all other PEs within Metro B.

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Questions 85

What is the default fdb size for a VPLS service?

Options:

A.

100

B.

1

C.

25

D.

250

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Questions 86

Click on the exhibit below.

Which ports will become root ports? (Choose 3)

Options:

A.

Bridge B 1/1/3

B.

Bridge B 1/1/2

C.

Bridge C 1/1/2

D.

Bridge C 2/1/1

E.

Bridge D 1/1/1

F.

Bridge D 1/1/3

G.

Bridge E 1/1/1

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Questions 87

Click on the exhibit below.

If the device connected to PE-A in Metro A sends a frame to PE-A that requires replication within the VPLS which devices is PE-A responsible for replicating the frame to?

Options:

A.

PE-A must replicate the frame to all devices participating in the VPLS

B.

PE-A must replicate the frame to all PEs within Metro A

C.

PE-A must replicate the frame to all devices in the Metro A

D.

All of the above

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Questions 88

Which of the following statements about Spanning Tree Protocol is true?

Options:

A.

The switch with the lowest priority becomes the root.

B.

The switch with the highest priority becomes the root.

C.

The switch with the lowest MAC address always becomes the root.

D.

The switch with the highest MAC address always becomes the root.

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Questions 89

Which of the following statements is false?

Options:

A.

VPLS is a bridged LAN service.

B.

VPLS provides L2 VPN services to CEs.

C.

VPLS is a point-to-point service where CEs are presented with point-to-point virtual circuits.

D.

CEs that are members of the same VPLS service instance communicate with each other as if they are connected via a bridged LAN.

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Questions 90

Assuming TLDP and RSVP are both being used in an MPLS network core which of the following statements is true?

Options:

A.

TLDP is used to create the inner label, RSVP is used to create the outer label.

B.

TLDP is used to create the outer label, RSVP is used to create the inner label.

C.

TLDP and RSVP cannot be used in the same network since they both provide the same label.

D.

When RSVP is used, TLDP must be disabled and static vc labels should be used.

E.

TLDP and RSVP can be used to create either labels based on how they are configured.

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Questions 91

Which of the following OAM tools can be used as a VPLS topology discovery mechanism (Choose 2)?

Options:

A.

oam mac-ping

B.

oam mac-populate

C.

oamsvc-ping

D.

oam mac-trace

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Questions 92

How many designated ports are there in a spanning tree topology?

Options:

A.

The same as the number of alternate ports in the topology

B.

1 per segment

C.

The same as the number of root ports

D.

1 per switch

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Questions 93

Which of the following is a true statement?

Options:

A.

The lower the age-time, the greater the amount of flooding

B.

The higher the age-time, the greater the amount of flooding.

C.

The lower the age-time, the lower the amount of flooding.

D.

There is no relationship between the age-time and the amount of flooding.

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Questions 94

What is the result of initiating an oam mac-ping to an unknown unicast MAC address in a VPLS instance?

Options:

A.

The oam mac-ping will fail. The MAC address must be known in the local FDB to be successful.

B.

The request will be flooded and the only response will come from the PE node that has learned the specified MAC address on a local SAP.

C.

The request will be flooded and the CE device with the corresponding MAC will reply.

D.

All nodes will reply because the oam mac-ping is flooded.

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Questions 95

The "discard-unknown" command has been enabled at the VPLS level. Which of the following statements is true? (Choose 2)

Options:

A.

Broadcast traffic will be flooded.

B.

If the unicastSA has not been learned in the FDB, the frame will be dropped.

C.

If the unicast DA has not been learned in the FDB, the frame will be dropped.

D.

All traffic will be dropped, including multicast and broadcast.

E.

Broadcast traffic will be dropped.

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Exam Code: 4A0-C02
Exam Name: Nokia SRA Composite Exam
Last Update: Nov 21, 2024
Questions: 639
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