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4A0-107 Nokia Quality of Service Questions and Answers

Questions 4

Based on the image shown above, and assuming that the default scheduler of the Nokia 7750 SR is on an IOM2 card, in which order will packets be scheduled?

Options:

A.

Queue 6 within-CIR packets, then queue 5 within-CIR packets, then queue 5 and queue 6 above-CIR packets in round-robin.

B.

Queue 6 within-CIR packets, then queue 5 within-CIR packets, then queue 5 and queue 6 above-CIR packets in biased round-robin.

C.

Queue 6 within-CIR packets, then queue 5 within-CIR packets, then queue 6 above-CIR packets, and finally queue 5 above-CIR packets.

D.

Queue 6 and queue 5 within-CIR packets in biased round-robin, then queue 5 and queue 6 above-CIR packets in round-robin.

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Questions 5

What is an SLA? (Choose two)

Options:

A.

An SLA is used to provide automated, real-time testing and alarming for throughput, latency, and jitter across a provider's network.

B.

An SLA is an agreement between a customer and a provider that dictates the treatment of customer traffic across the provider's network.

C.

An SLA allows customers to control all traffic within the service provider's network by prioritizing their traffic over others as desired.

D.

An SLA allows a customer to pre-mark traffic and ensure that traffic is treated as per the agreement within the provider's network.

E.

An SLA is a standard set of network QoS policies that a provider shares to all its customers, allowing them to better understand the treatment of traffic within the provider's network.

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Questions 6

Which of the following statements regarding the default scheduler in the Nokia 7750 SR are TRUE? (Choose two)

Options:

A.

There are a maximum of 8 levels of priority serviced using a round-robin algorithm.

B.

The default scheduler will spend an equal amount of time in each queue, as long as there is traffic present

C.

The H1 internal forwarding class will receive its CIR before AF traffic.

D.

Orphaned queues will be scheduled out of the BE queue.

E.

A queue servicing EF and AF traffic will require explicit configuration to set the queue to expedited.

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Questions 7

On the Nokia 7750 SR, how many queues per FC are available for multipoint traffic within a VPLS on service ingress?

Options:

A.

64

B.

8

C.

3

D.

16

E.

1

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Questions 8

In the diagram shown above, applying policing and soft-policing on access ingress is typical for which of the following types of traffic?

Options:

A.

Real-time

B.

Assured

C.

Best-effort

D.

Self-generated

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Questions 9

Click the exhibit button below. Given the scheduler-policy (below), which of the following can be done to guarantee that the best-effort traffic receives its configured CIR value?

Options:

A.

Change the CIR-level value for the best-effort queue to 8.

B.

Do not change anything; it is already guaranteed to receive its CIR

C.

Change the CIR-level value for the best-effort queue to 1.

D.

Change the CIR-weight value of the AF queue to 0.

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Questions 10

A hierarchical scheduler policy with the shown parameters is configured at a service ingress. If the offered rate of each queue is 10Mbps, what is the operational PIR and CIR for queue 3?

Options:

A.

PIR = 5 Mbps, CIR = 0 Mbps

B.

PIR= 4 Mbps, CIR = 1 Mbps

C.

PIR= 6 Mbps, CIR = 4 Mbps

D.

PIR= 6 Mbps, CIR = 1 Mbps

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Questions 11

With hierarchical scheduling, up to ___________ tiers are supported on the Nokia 7750 SR.

Options:

A.

8

B.

3

C.

4

D.

5

E.

6

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Questions 12

Why are the four QoS steps (classification, queuing, scheduling, and marking/remarking) executed twice for every packet entering a 7750 SR router?

Options:

A.

Once before going through each of the redundant switching fabrics.

B.

To protect against failure of either ingress or egress card.

C.

Once before going through the switching fabric, and once more before going onto the egress port.

D.

Once to decide if the packet is in-profile or out-of-profile, and once more to process the packet according to its profile.

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Questions 13

A profile-mode queue is configured with the following attributes: MBS = 10 KB, CBS = 5 KB and High-Priority- Only = 30%. Assume there is no CBS overbooking, and the slope-policy is disabled. If the current queue depth is 8 KB, what will happen to an in-profile packet?

Options:

A.

It will be discarded because the high-priority-only threshold is exceeded.

B.

It will be stored in the queue’s reserved buffer space and become out-of-profile.

C.

It will be stored in the queue’s reserved buffer space and remain in-profile.

D.

It will contend for shared buffer space with packets from other queues.

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Questions 14

Which of the following criteria is an IP multi-field classification option?

Options:

A.

prec

B.

lsp-exp

C.

src-ip

D.

do1p

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Questions 15

Which of the following policies does NOT exist by default on a network port?

Options:

A.

A network policy for every network interface configured on the port.

B.

A slope policy for the port on ingress.

C.

A network queue policy for the corresponding MDA on ingress.

D.

A network queue policy for the port on egress.

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Questions 16

Which of the following statements regarding the egress port scheduler is TRUE?

Options:

A.

The egress port scheduler can have up to 17 children spread across 8 levels.

B.

Multiple egress port schedulers can be assigned to a single port with many HQoS children.

C.

Multiple HQoS policies can be children of a single port scheduler.

D.

Multiple egress port schedulers can be children of a single HQoS scheduler.

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Questions 17

Which of the following traffic types is typically rate-limited by applying shaping and soft-policing on access ingress?

Options:

A.

Self-generated

B.

Real-time

C.

Best-effort

D.

Assured

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Questions 18

Which action does the packet remarking process perform?

Options:

A.

It determines the packet’s forwarding class based on classification criteria

B.

It modifies the current packet’s forwarding class to indicate promotion or demotion

C.

It sets the TOS, DSCP, EXP, or Dot1p field based on classification criteria

D.

It modifies the current TOS, DSCP, EXP, or Dot1p marking to indicate promotion or demotion

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Questions 19

Click the exhibit button below. Given that the slope-policy (below) has been enabled and applied on a network port, which of the following statements are TRUE? (Choose three)

Options:

A.

All out-of-profile traffic will be dropped before any in-profile is dropped.

B.

The time average factor of 0 will discard all packets arriving in the shared buffer pool.

C.

When the shared buffer utilization reaches 51%, in-profile packets might be dropped.

D.

The highest probability with which an out-of-profile packet can be dropped is 20%.

E.

When an in-profile packet arrives and the shared buffer utilization is at 69%, the packet will have approximately a 60% likelihood of being discarded.

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Questions 20

If traffic is destined to queue 5, which has a high-priority-only value of 0 in the network-queue policy, all out-of-profile packets will be dropped.

Options:

A.

TRUE

B.

FALSE

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Questions 21

In which policies, on the Nokia 7750 SR. is classification performed? (Choose three)

Options:

A.

SAP-ingress policy

B.

SAP-egress policy

C.

IP-criteria policy

D.

Network-queue policy

E.

Slope policy

F.

Network policy

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Questions 22

Given the scheduler-policy parameters shown, and assuming the offered rate of each queue is 10 Mbps, what are the operational PIR and CIR for queue 3?

Options:

A.

PIR = 4 Mbps, CIR = 1 Mbps

B.

PIR = 1 Mbps, CIR = 1 Mbps

C.

PIR = 10 Mbps, CIR = 1 Mbps

D.

PIR = 5 Mbps, CIR = 1.25 Mbps

E.

PIR = 1.25 Mbps, CIR = 1.25 Mbps

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Questions 23

Click the exhibit button below. Given the slope-policy (below), which of the following statements are TRUE? (Choose two)

Options:

A.

All out-of-profile traffic will be dropped before that of any in-profile traffic.

B.

The discard probability slope of an in-profile traffic is steeper than that of an out-of-profile traffic.

C.

When the shared buffer utilization reaches 55%, both in-profile and out-of-profile packets may be dropped.

D.

The maximum probability with which an out-of-profile packet can be dropped is higher than that of an in-profile packet.

E.

When the shared buffer utilization is at 61%, only in-profile packets are currently in the shared buffer pool.

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Questions 24

What is the maximum number of SAP-ingress policies that can be applied on a SAP?

Options:

A.

1

B.

2

C.

3

D.

4

E.

5

F.

8

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Questions 25

A queue is configured with the following attributes:

MBS = 10KB

CBS = 5KB

High-Priority-Only = 20%

Assume that there is no CBS overbooking and that the slope-policy is disabled. If the current queue depth is 3KB, what will happen to an out-of-profile packet arriving at an egress queue?

Options:

A.

It will be queued in the reserved portion of the buffer pool and remain out-of-profile.

B.

It will be queued in the reserved portion of the buffer pool if there are no in-profile packets already in the queue.

C.

It will be queued in the reserved portion of the buffer pool and be in-profile.

D.

It will be queued in the shared portion of the buffer pool but contend for shared buffer space with packets from other queues.

E.

It will be queued in the shared portion of the buffer pool but may be dropped if the buffer utilization exceeds the start-average value of the low slope.

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Questions 26

Which of the following are the minimum requirements needed to classify traffic marked with DSCP AF11, AF12, and AF13 into the AF forwarding class and provide fair treatment to the drop precedence settings? (Choose three)

Options:

A.

Profile mode queues

B.

Priority mode queues

C.

1 queue

D.

3 queues

E.

3 forwarding classes

F.

1 forwarding class, with 2 subclasses

G.

1 forwarding class, with 3 subclasses

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Questions 27

Which of the following statements BEST describes an MBS parameter?

Options:

A.

It specifies the maximum rate at which a queue can be serviced.

B.

It specifies the maximum depth of a queue beyond which packets will be dropped.

C.

It specifies the portion of a queue that is taken from the reserved buffer pool.

D.

It specifies the threshold beyond which only in-profile packets will be queued.

E.

It specifies the peak bandwidth that can be attained by the incoming traffic.

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Questions 28

Traffic corresponding to a layer-3 VPN arrives at router PE1 marked with a dot1p value of 4. The SDP carrying the traffic uses an MPLS transport tunnel. Given the policies applied on the routers in the diagram, what is the EXP value of packets arriving at router PE2?

Options:

A.

2

B.

3

C.

5

D.

6

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Questions 29

A profile-mode queue is configured with MBS = 100 KB, CBS = 50 KB and High-Priority-Only = 40%. Assume there is no CBS overbooking, and the slope-policy is disabled. If the current queue depth is 70 KB, what will happen to an out-of-profile packet when it is transmitted to the queue?

Options:

A.

It will be stored in the reserved buffer space and remain out-of-profile.

B.

It will be stored in the reserved buffer space and become in-profile.

C.

It will contend for shared buffer space with packets from other queues.

D.

It will be discarded because the high-priority-only threshold has been reached.

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Questions 30

The SAP-ingress policy shown below is applied properly to a Nokia 7750 SR. A traffic stream is received from an IP address of 192.168.2.200 with DSCP and dot1p set to EF and 4, respectively. Which forwarding class and priority level is used for this traffic stream?

Options:

A.

FC H1, high

B.

FCH1, low

C.

FCAF, high

D.

FCAF, low

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Questions 31

Which of the following statements BEST describes the IntServ model?

Options:

A.

Has the ability to distinguish traffic in 32 different ways.

B.

Uses the RSVP protocol to create microflows through a network.

C.

Has the ability to manually configure foiwarding classes through a network.

D.

Uses the RSVP protocol to create macroflows through a network.

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Questions 32

Which of the following are examples of metrics for QoS?

Options:

A.

Signal degradation, attenuation, line loss

B.

Latency, FIFO, WRED

C.

Delay, jitter, packet loss

D.

SNR, queue depth, latency

E.

Attenuation, dispersion, latency

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Questions 33

When we select the adaptation rule “min”, how are the operational CIR/PIR rates of a queue calculated?

Options:

A.

The administrative PIR values are ignored and both operational rates are set to the minimum residual rate allowed by the hardware.

B.

The administrative PIR value is ignored and both operational rates are set to the administrative CIR value.

C.

They are chosen as the largest multiple of the hardware rate step that is less than or equal to the corresponding CIR/PIR administrative value.

D.

They are chosen as the smallest multiple of the hardware rate step that is greater than or equal to the corresponding CIR/PIR administrative value.

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Questions 34

Which of the following BEST describes a SAP when regarding QoS?

Options:

A.

A point in the network where EXP bits can be mapped to one of eight predefined FCs, each one with its own queue.

B.

A logical point in a service tunnel where all of customer traffic is aggregated.

C.

A point at which the initial classification of customer traffic occurs.

D.

A point in the network where QoS parameters are discarded in favor of lower-level hardware queuing functions, such as LLI (Link Layer Interleave).

E.

A point in the network where traffic flows from multiple different services are queued together, based on forwarding class.

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Exam Code: 4A0-107
Exam Name: Nokia Quality of Service
Last Update: Dec 22, 2024
Questions: 231
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